24.— (1) In this Part—

F11["Article 3(2) authorities" means the authorities designated under Regulation 3(2) of the European Union (Money Laundering and Terrorist Financing) (Use of Financial and Other Information) Regulations 2023;]

“barrister” means a practising barrister;

“beneficial owner” has the meaning assigned to it by sections 26 to 30 ;

“business relationship”, in relation to a designated person and a customer of the person, means a business, professional or commercial relationship between the person and the customer that the person expects to be ongoing;

F12["business risk assessment" has the meaning given to it by section 30A;]

F13["Capital Requirements Regulation" means Regulation (EU) No 575/2013 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 June 2013 on prudential requirements for credit institutions and investment firms and amending Regulation (EU) No 648/2012 as amended by—

(a) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2015/62 of 10 October 2014⁵⁴ amending Regulation (EU) No 575/2013 of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to the leverage ratio,

(b) Regulation (EU) 2016/1014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 8 June 2016⁵⁵ amending Regulation (EU) No 575/2013 as regards exemptions for commodity dealers,

(c) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2017/2188 of 11 August 2017⁵⁶ amending Regulation (EU) No 575/2013 of the European Parliament and of the Council as regards the waiver on own funds requirements for certain covered bonds,

(d) Regulation (EU) 2017/2395 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 12 December 2017⁵⁷ amending Regulation (EU) No 575/2013 as regards transitional arrangements for mitigating the impact of the introduction of IFRS 9 on own funds and for the large exposures treatment of certain public sector exposures denominated in the domestic currency of any Member State,

(e) Regulation (EU) 2017/2401 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 12 December 2017⁵⁸ amending Regulation (EU) No 575/2013 on prudential requirements for credit institutions and investment firms,

(f) Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2018/405 of 21 November 2017⁵⁹ correcting certain language versions of Regulation (EU) No 575/2013 of the European Parliament and of the Council on prudential requirements for credit institutions and investment firms and amending Regulation (EU) No 648/2012,

(g) Regulation (EU) 2019/630 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 17 April 2019⁶⁰ amending Regulation (EU) No 575/2013 as regards minimum loss coverage for non-performing exposures,

(h) Regulation (EU) 2019/876 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 May 2019⁶¹ amending Regulation (EU) No 575/2013 as regards the leverage ratio, the net stable funding ratio, requirements for own funds and eligible liabilities, counterparty credit risk, market risk, exposures to central counterparties, exposures to collective investment undertakings, large exposures, reporting and disclosure requirements, and Regulation (EU) No 648/2012,

(i) Regulation (EU) 2019/2033 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27 November 2019⁶² on the prudential requirements of investment firms and amending Regulations (EU) No 1093/2010, (EU) No 575/2013, (EU) No 600/2014 and (EU) No 806/2014, and

(j) Regulation (EU) 2020/873 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 24 June 2020⁶³ amending Regulations (EU) No 575/2013 and (EU) 2019/876 as regards certain adjustments in response to the COVID-19 pandemic;]

F12["collective investment undertaking" means—

(a) an undertaking for collective investment in transferable securities authorised in accordance with the European Communities (Undertakings for Collective Investment in Transferable Securities) Regulations 2011 (S.I. No. 352 of 2011) or otherwise in accordance with the Directive of 2009,

(b) an alternative investment fund within the meaning of the European Union (Alternative Investment Fund Managers) Regulations 2013 (S.I. No. 257 of 2013),

(c) a management company authorised in accordance with the European Communities (Undertakings for Collective Investment in Transferable Securities) Regulations 2011 or otherwise in accordance with the Directive of 2009, or

(d) an alternative investment fund manager within the meaning of the European Union (Alternative Investment Fund Managers) Regulations 2013;]

“competent authority” has the meaning assigned to it by sections 60 and 61;

F14["correspondent relationship" means—

(a) the provision of banking services by one bank as the correspondent to another bank as the respondent, including providing a current or other liability account and related services, such as cash management, international funds transfers, cheque clearing, payable-through accounts and foreign exchange services, or

(b) the relationships between and among credit institutions and financial institutions including where similar services are provided by a correspondent institution to a respondent institution, and including relationships established for securities transactions or funds transfers;]

“credit institution” means—

F15[(a) a credit institution within the meaning of point (1) of Article 4(1) of the Capital Requirements Regulation, or]

(b) An Post in respect of any activity that it carries out, whether as principal or agent, that would render it, or a principal for whom it is an agent, a credit institution as a result of the application of paragraph (a);

F16["custodian wallet provider" means an entity that provides services to safeguard private cryptographic keys on behalf of its customers, to hold, store and transfer virtual currencies;]

“customer”—

(a) in relation to an auditor, means—

(i) a body corporate to which the auditor has been appointed as an auditor, or

(ii) in the case of an auditor appointed to audit the accounts of an unincorporated body of persons or of an individual, the unincorporated body or the individual,

(b) in relation to a relevant independent legal professional, includes, in the case of the provision of services by a barrister, a person who is a client of a solicitor seeking advice from the barrister for or on behalf of the client and does not, in that case, include the solicitor, or

(c) in relation to a trust or company service provider, means a person with whom the trust or company service provider has an arrangement to provide services as such a service provider;

“Department” means the Department of Justice, Equality and Law Reform;

“designated accountancy body” means a prescribed accountancy body, within the meaning of Part 2 of the Companies (Auditing and Accounting) Act 2003;

“designated person” has the meaning assigned to it by section 25;

F11["Directive (EU) 2019/1153" means Directive (EU) 2019/1153 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 June 2019¹ laying down rules facilitating the use of financial and other information for the prevention, detection, investigation or prosecution of certain criminal offences, and repealing Council Decision 2000/642/JHA;]

F17[F18["Directive of 2009" means Directive 2009/65/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 13 July 200912 , as amended by—

(a) Directive 2010/78/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 24 November 201013,

(b) Directive 2011/61/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 8 June 201114,

(c) Directive 2013/14/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 21 May 201315,

(d) Directive 2014/91/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 23 July 201416,

(e) Regulation (EU) 2017/2402 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 12 December 201717,

(f) Directive (EU) 2019/1160 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 June 201918,

(g) Directive (EU) 2019/2034 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 June 201919 , and

(h) Directive (EU) 2019/2162 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27 November 201920;]]

“EEA State” means a state that is a Contracting Party to the Agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as adjusted by the Protocol signed at Brussels on 17 March 1993;

F16["Electronic Identification Regulation" means Regulation (EU) No. 910/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 23 July 2014² on electronic identification and trust services for electronic transactions in the internal market and repealing Directive 1999/93/EC;]

F17["electronic money" means electronic money within the meaning of the European Communities (Electronic Money) Regulations 2011 (S.I. No. 183 of 2011);]

F19[…]

F11["Europol" means the body established under Article 1(1) of Regulation (EU) 2016/794;]

“external accountant” means a person who by way of business provides accountancy services (other than when providing such services to the employer of the person) whether or not the person holds accountancy qualifications or is a member of a designated accountancy body;

F20["financial institution" means—

(a) an undertaking that carries out one or more of the activities set out at reference numbers 2 to 12, 14 and 15 of the Schedule to the European Union (Capital Requirements) Regulations 2014 (S.I. No. 158 of 2014) or foreign exchange services, but does not include an undertaking—

(i) that does not carry out any of the activities set out at those reference numbers other than one or more of the activities set out at reference number 7, and

(ii) whose only customers (if any) are members of the same group as the undertaking,

(b) an insurance undertaking within the meaning of Regulation 3 of the European Union (Insurance and Reinsurance) Regulations 2015 (S.I. No. 485 of 2015), in so far as it carries out life assurance activities,

(c) a person, other than a person falling within Regulation 4(1) of the European Union (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017 (S.I. No. 375 of 2017), whose regular occupation or business is—

(i) the provision to other persons, or the performance, of investment services and activities within the meaning of those Regulations, or

(ii) bidding directly in auctions in accordance with Commission Regulation (EU) No 1031/2010 of 12 November 2010⁵ on the timing, administration and other aspects of auctioning of greenhouse gas emission allowances pursuant to Directive 2003/87/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council establishing a scheme for greenhouse gas emission allowances trading within the Community on behalf of its clients,

(d) an investment business firm within the meaning of the Investment Intermediaries Act 1995 (other than a non-life insurance intermediary within the meaning of that Act),

(e) a collective investment undertaking that markets or otherwise offers its units or shares,

(f) an insurance intermediary within the meaning of the Insurance Mediation Directive (other than a tied insurance intermediary within the meaning of that Directive) that provides life assurance or other investment-related services, or

(g) An Post, in respect of any activity it carries out, whether as principal or agent—

(i) that would render it, or a principal for whom it is an agent, a financial institution as a result of the application of any of the foregoing paragraphs,

(ii) that is set out at reference number 1 in the Schedule to the European Union (Capital Requirements) Regulations 2014, or

(iii) that would render it, or a principal for whom it is an agent, an investment business firm within the meaning of the Investment Intermediaries Act 1995 (other than a non-life insurance intermediary within the meaning of that Act) F21[if section 2(6) of that Act did not apply,]]

F16[(h) a virtual asset service provider;]

F11["FIU Ireland" has the meaning assigned to it by section 40A(2);]

F20["group" means a group of undertakings which consists of a parent undertaking, its subsidiaries, and the entities in which the parent undertaking or its subsidiaries hold a participation, as well as undertakings linked to each other by a relationship within the meaning of Article 22 of Directive 2013/34/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 June 2013⁶ on the annual financial statements and related reports of certain types of undertakings, amending Directive 2006/43/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing Council Directives 78/660/EEC and 83/349/EEC;]

F17["high-risk third country" means a jurisdiction identified by the European Commission in accordance with Article 9 of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive;]

“Insurance Mediation Directive” means Directive 2002/92/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 9 December 2002 on insurance mediation ⁷;

F19[…]

“Markets in Financial Instruments Directive” means Directive 2004/39/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 21 April 2004 on markets in financial instruments amending Council Directives 85/611/EEC and 93/6/EEC and Directive 2000/12/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council and repealing Council Directive 93/22/EEC ⁹;

“member”, in relation to a designated accountancy body, means a member, within the meaning of Part 2 of the Companies (Auditing and Accounting) Act 2003, of a designated accountancy body;

“member”, in relation to the Irish Taxation Institute, means a person who is subject to the professional and ethical standards of the Institute, including its investigation and disciplinary procedures, but does not include a person who is admitted to its membership as a student;

F17["monitoring", in relation to a business relationship between a designated person and a customer, means the designated person, on an ongoing basis—

(a) scrutinising transactions, and the source of wealth or of funds for those transactions, undertaken during the relationship in order to determine if the transactions are consistent with the designated person’s knowledge of—

(i) the customer,

(ii) the customer’s business and pattern of transactions, and

(iii) the customer’s risk profile (as determined under section 30B),

and

(b) ensuring that documents, data and information on customers are kept up to date in accordance with its internal policies, controls and procedures adopted in accordance with section 54;]

F17["national risk assessment" means the assessment carried out by the State in accordance with paragraph 1 of Article 7 of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive;]

F22["occasional transaction" means, in relation to a customer of a designated person where the designated person does not have a business relationship with the customer, a single transaction, or a series of transactions that are or appear to be linked to each other, and—

(a) in a case where the designated person concerned is a person referred to in section 25(1)(h), that the amount of money or the monetary value concerned—

(i) paid to the designated person by the customer, or

(ii) paid to the customer by the designated person,

is in aggregate not less than €2,000,

F23[(b) in a case where the transaction concerned consists of a transfer of funds (within the meaning of Regulation (EU) No. 2015/847 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 20 May 2015⁷) that the amount of money to be transferred is in aggregate not less than €1,000,]

F24[(bb) in a case where the designated person concerned is a person referred to in section 25(1)(i), that the amount concerned—

(i) paid to the designated person by the customer, or

(ii) paid to the customer by the designated person,

is in aggregate not less than €10,000, and]

(c) in a case other than one referred to in paragraphs F23[(a), (b) or (bb)], that the amount or aggregate of amounts concerned is not less than €15,000;]

“payment service” has the same meaning as in the Payment Services Directive;

“Payment Services Directive” means Directive 2007/64/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 13 November 2007 on payment services in the internal market amending Directives 97/7/EC, 2002/65/EC, 2005/60/EC and 2006/48/EC and repealing Directive 97/5/EC ¹⁰;

“professional service provider” means an auditor, external accountant, tax adviser, relevant independent legal professional or trust or company service provider;

F21["property service provider" means a person who provides a property service within the meaning of the Property Services (Regulation) Act 2011;]

(a) the auction of property other than land;

(b) the purchase or sale, by whatever means, of land;

but does not include a service provided by a local authority in the course of the performance of its statutory functions under any statutory provision;

F20["public body" means an FOI body within the meaning of the Freedom of Information Act 2014;]

F19[…]

F20["regulated market" means—

(a) a regulated market with the meaning of point (21) of Article 4(1) of Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 May 2014⁸ on markets in financial instruments and amending Directive 2002/92/EC and Directive 2011/61/EU, located within the EEA, or

(b) a regulated market that subjects companies whose securities are admitted to trading to disclosure obligations which are equivalent to the following:

(i) disclosure obligations set out in Articles 17 and 19 of Regulation (EU) No. 596/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 16 April 2014⁹ on market abuse (market abuse regulation) and repealing Directive 2003/6/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council and Commission Directives 2003/124/EC, 2003/125/EC and 2004/72/EC,

(ii) disclosure obligations consistent with Articles 3, 5, 7, 8, 10, 14 and 16 of Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003¹⁰ on the prospectuses to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading and amending Directive 2001/34/EC,

(iii) disclosure obligations consistent with Articles 4 to 6, 14, 16 to 19 and 30 of Directive 2004/109/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 December 2004¹¹ on the harmonisation of transparency requirements in relation to information about issuers whose securities are admitted to trading on a regulated market and amending Directive 2001/34/EC, and

(iv) disclosure requirements consistent with EU legislation made under the provisions mentioned in subparagraphs (i) to (iii);]

F11["Regulation (EU) 2016/794" means Regulation (EU) 2016/794 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 11 May 2016² on the European Union Agency for Law Enforcement Cooperation (Europol) and replacing and repealing Council Decisions 2009/371/JHA, 2009/934/JHA, 2009/935/JHA, 2009/936/JHA and 2009/968/JHA;]

“relevant independent legal professional” means a barrister, solicitor or notary who carries out any of the following services:

(a) the provision of assistance in the planning or execution of transactions for clients concerning any of the following:

(i) buying or selling land or business entities;

(ii) managing the money, securities or other assets of clients;

(iii) opening or managing bank, savings or securities accounts;

(iv) organising contributions necessary for the creation, operation or management of companies;

(v) creating, operating or managing trusts, companies or similar structures or arrangements;

(b) acting for or on behalf of clients in financial transactions or transactions relating to land;

“relevant professional adviser” means an accountant, auditor or tax adviser who is a member of a designated accountancy body or of the Irish Taxation Institute;

F17["senior management" means an officer or employee with sufficient knowledge of the institution’s money laundering and terrorist financing risk exposure and sufficient seniority to take decisions affecting its risk exposure, and need not, in all cases, be a member of the board of directors;]

“solicitor” means a practising solicitor;

“State competent authority” has the meaning assigned to it by section 62;

“tax adviser” means a person who by way of business provides advice about the tax affairs of other persons;

“transaction” means—

(a) in relation to a professional service provider, any transaction that is carried out in connection with a customer of the provider and that is—

(i) in the case of a provider acting as an auditor, the subject of an audit carried out by the provider in respect of the accounts of the customer,

(ii) in the case of a provider acting as an external accountant or tax adviser, or as a trust or company service provider, the subject of a service carried out by the provider for the customer, or

(iii) in the case of a provider acting as a relevant independent legal professional, the subject of a service carried out by the professional for the customer of a kind referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) of the definition of “relevant independent legal professional” in this subsection;

and

(b) in relation to a casino or private members’ club, a transaction, such as the purchase or exchange of tokens or chips, or the placing of a bet, carried out in connection with gambling activities carried out on the premises of the casino or club by a customer of the casino or club;

F17["transferable securities" means transferable securities within the meaning of the European Union (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2017;]

“trust or company service provider” means any person whose business it is to provide any of the following services:

(a) forming companies or other bodies corporate;

(b) acting as a director or secretary of a company under an arrangement with a person other than the company;

(c) arranging for another person to act as a director or secretary of a company;

(d) acting, or arranging for a person to act, as a partner of a partnership;

(e) providing a registered office, business address, correspondence or administrative address or other related services for a body corporate or partnership;

(f) acting, or arranging for another person to act, as a trustee of a trust;

(g) acting, or arranging for another person to act, as a nominee shareholder for a person other than a company whose securities are listed on a regulated market.

F16["virtual asset" means a digital representation of value that can be digitally traded or transferred and can be used for payment or investment purposes but does not include digital representations of fiat currencies, securities or other financial assets;

"virtual asset service provider" means a person who by way of business carries out one or more of the following activities for, or on behalf of, another person:

(a) exchange between virtual assets and fiat currencies;

(b) exchange between one or more forms of virtual assets;

(c) transfer of virtual assets, that is to say, conduct a transaction on behalf of another person that moves a virtual asset from one virtual asset address or account to another;

(d) custodian wallet provider;

(e) participation in, and provision of, financial services related to an issuer’s offer or sale of a virtual asset or both;

but does not include a designated person that is not a financial or credit institution and that provides virtual asset services in an incidental manner and is subject to supervision by a national competent authority, other than the Bank;]

(2) The Minister may prescribe a regulated financial market for the purposes of the definition of “regulated market” in subsection (1) only if the Minister is satisfied that the market is in a place other than an EEA State that imposes, on companies whose securities are admitted to trading on the market, disclosure requirements consistent with legislation of the European Communities.

25.— (1) In this Part, “designated person” means any person, acting in the State in the course of business carried on by the person in the State, who or that is—

(a) a credit institution, except as provided by subsection (4),

(b) a financial institution, except as provided by subsection (4),

(c) an auditor, external accountant F25[, tax adviser or any other person whose principal business or professional activity is to provide, directly or by means of other persons to which that other person is related, material aid, assistance or advice on tax matters],

F26[(d) subject to subsection (1A), a relevant independent legal professional,]

(e) a trust or company service provider,

F25[(f) a property service provider including a property service provider acting as an intermediary in the letting of immovable property, but only in respect of transactions for which the monthly rent amounts to a total of at least €10,000,]

(g) a casino,

(h) a person who effectively directs a private members’ club at which gambling activities are carried on, but only in respect of those gambling activities,

(i) any person trading in goods, but only in respect of transactions involving payments, to the person F27[or by the person] in cash, of a total of at least F26[€10,000] (whether in one transaction or in a series of transactions that are or appear to be linked to each other), F28[…]

F29[(ia) a virtual asset service provider,

(ib) a person trading or acting as an intermediary in the trade of works of art (including when carried out by an art gallery or an auction house) but only in respect of transactions of a total value of at least €10,000 (whether in one transaction or in a series of transactions that are or appear to be linked to each other),

(ic) a person storing, trading or acting as an intermediary in the trade of works of art when this is carried out in a free port but only in respect of transactions of a total value of at least €10,000 (whether in one transaction or as a series of transactions that are or appear to be linked to each other), or]

(j) any other person of a prescribed class.

F27[(1A) A relevant independent legal professional shall be a designated person only as respects the carrying out of the services specified in the definition of ‘relevant independent legal professional’ in section 24(1).]

(2) For the purposes of this Part, a person is to be treated as a designated person only in respect of those activities or services that render the person a designated person.

(3) A reference in this Part to a designated person does not include a reference to any of the following:

(a) the Minister for Finance;

(b) the F30[Central Bank of Ireland];

(c) the National Treasury Management Agency.

(4) A person is not to be treated as a designated person for the purposes of this Part solely as a result of operating as a credit institution or financial institution, in the course of business, if—

(a) the annual turnover of the person’s business that is attributable to operating as a credit institution or financial institution is €70,000 (or such other amount as may be prescribed) or less,

(b) the total of any single transaction, or a series of transactions that are or appear to be linked to each other, in respect of which the person operates as a credit institution or financial institution does not exceed €1,000 (or such other lesser amount as may be prescribed),

(c) the annual turnover of the person’s business that is attributable to operating as a credit institution or financial institution does not exceed 5 per cent of the business’s total annual turnover,

(d) the person’s operation as a credit institution or financial institution is directly related and ancillary to the person’s main business activity, and

(e) the person provides services when operating as a credit institution or financial institution only to persons who are customers in respect of the person’s main business activity, rather than to members of the public in general.

(5) Subsection (4) does not apply in relation to any prescribed class of person.

(6) For the avoidance of doubt and without prejudice to the generality of subsection (1)(a) or (b), a credit or financial institution that acts in the State in the course of business carried on by the institution in the State, by means of a branch situated in the State, is a designated person whether or not the institution is incorporated, or the head office of the institution is situated, in a place other than in the State.

(7) The Minister may prescribe a class of persons for the purposes of subsection (1)(j) only if the Minister is satisfied that any of the business activities engaged in by the class—

(a) may be used for the purposes of—

(i) money laundering,

(ii) terrorist financing, or

(iii) an offence that corresponds or is similar to money laundering or terrorist financing under the law of a place outside the State,

or

(b) are of a kind likely to result in members of the class obtaining information on the basis of which they may become aware of, or suspect, the involvement of customers or others in money laundering or terrorist financing.

(8) The Minister may, in any regulations made under subsection (7) prescribing a class of persons, apply to the class such exemptions from, or modifications to, provisions of this Act as the Minister considers appropriate, having regard to any risk that the business activities engaged in by the class may be used for a purpose referred to in paragraph (a) of that subsection.

(9) The Minister may prescribe an amount for the purposes of paragraph (a) or (b) of subsection (4), in relation to a person’s business activities as a credit institution or financial institution, only if the Minister is satisfied that, in prescribing the amount, the purposes of that subsection will likely be fulfilled, including that—

(a) those activities are carried out by the person on a limited basis, and

(b) there is little risk that those activities may be used for a purpose referred to in subsection (7)(a).

(10) The Minister may prescribe a class of persons for the purpose of subsection (5) only if the Minister is satisfied that the application of subsection (4) to the class involves an unacceptable risk that the business activities engaged in by the class may be used for a purpose referred to in subsection (7)(a).

F31[26.— In this Part, "beneficial owner", in relation to a body corporate, has the meaning given to it by point (6)(a) of Article 3 of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive.]

27.— In this Part, “beneficial owner”, in relation to a partnership, means any individual who—

(a) ultimately is entitled to or controls, whether the entitlement or control is direct or indirect, more than a 25 per cent share of the capital or profits of the partnership or more than 25 per cent of the voting rights in the partnership, or

(b) otherwise F32[controls] the partnership.

28.— (1) F33[…]

(2) In this Part, “beneficial owner”, in relation to a trust, means any of the following:

(a) any individual who is entitled to a vested interest in possession, remainder or reversion, whether or not the interest is defeasible, in F33[…] the capital of the trust property;

(b) in the case of a trust other than one that is set up or operates entirely for the benefit of individuals referred to in paragraph (a), the class of individuals in whose main interest the trust is set up or operates;

(c) any individual who has control over F34[the trust;]

F35[(d) the settlor;

(e) the trustee;

(f) the protector.]

(3) For the purposes of and without prejudice to the generality of subsection (2), an individual who is the beneficial owner of a body corporate that—

(a) is entitled to a vested interest of the kind referred to in subsection (2)(a), or

(b) has control over the trust,

is taken to be entitled to the vested interest or to have control over the trust (as the case may be).

(4) Except as provided by subsection (5), in this section “control”, in relation to a trust, means a power (whether exercisable alone, jointly with another person or with the consent of another person) under the trust instrument concerned or by law to do any of the following:

(a) dispose of, advance, lend, invest, pay or apply trust property;

(b) vary the trust;

(c) add or remove a person as a beneficiary or to or from a class of beneficiaries;

(d) appoint or remove trustees;

(e) direct, withhold consent to or veto the exercise of any power referred to in paragraphs (a) to (d).

(5) For the purposes of the definition of “control” in subsection (4), an individual does not have control solely as a result of the power exercisable collectively at common law to vary or extinguish a trust where the beneficiaries under the trust are at least 18 years of age, have full capacity and (taken together) are absolutely entitled to the property to which the trust applies.

29.— In this Part, “beneficial owner”, in relation to an estate of a deceased person in the course of administration, means the executor or administrator of the estate concerned.

30.— (1) In this Part, “beneficial owner”, in relation to a legal entity or legal arrangement, other than where section 26, 27 or 28, applies, means—

(a) if the individuals who benefit from the entity or arrangement have been determined, any individual who benefits from F36[…] the property of the entity or arrangement,

(b) if the individuals who benefit from the entity or arrangement have yet to be determined, the class of such individuals in whose main interest the entity or arrangement is set up or operates, and

(c) any individual who exercises control over F36[…] the property of the entity F37[or arrangement,]

F38[(d) any person holding a position, in relation to the legal entity or legal arrangement that is similar or equivalent to the position specified in paragraphs (d) to (f) of section 28(2) in relation to a trust.]

(2) For the purposes of and without prejudice to the generality of subsection (1), any individual who is the beneficial owner of a body corporate that benefits from or exercises control over the property of the entity or arrangement is taken to benefit from or exercise control over the property of the entity or arrangement.

(3) In this Part, “beneficial owner”, in relation to a case other than a case to which section 26, 27, 28 or 29, or subsection (1) of this section, applies, means any individual who ultimately owns or controls a customer or on whose behalf a transaction is conducted.

(4) F36[…]

30A.— (1) A designated person shall carry out an assessment (in this Act referred to as a "business risk assessment") to identify and assess the risks of money laundering and terrorist financing involved in carrying on the designated person’s business activities taking into account at least the following risk factors:

(a) the type of customer that the designated person has;

(b) the products and services that the designated person provides;

(c) the countries or geographical areas in which the designated person operates;

(d) the type of transactions that the designated person carries out;

(e) the delivery channels that the designated person uses;

(f) other prescribed additional risk factors.

(2) A designated person carrying out a business risk assessment shall have regard to the following:

(a) any information in the national risk assessment which is of relevance to all designated persons or a particular class of designated persons of which the designated person is a member;

(b) any guidance on risk issued by the competent authority for the designated person;

(c) where the designated person is a credit institution or financial institution, any guidelines addressed to credit institutions and financial institutions issued by the European Banking Authority, the European Securities and Markets Authority or the European Insurance and Occupational Pensions Authority in accordance with the Fourth Money Laundering Directive.

(3) A business risk assessment shall be documented unless a competent authority for a designated person decides under Article 8 of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive that an individual documented risk assessment is not required and notifies the designated person.

(4) A designated person shall keep the business risk assessment, and any related documents, up to date in accordance with its internal policies, controls and procedures adopted in accordance with section 54.

(5) A business risk assessment shall be approved by senior management.

(6) A designated person shall make records of a business risk assessment available, on request, to the competent authority for that designated person.

(7) The Minister may prescribe additional risk factors to be taken into account in a risk assessment under subsection (1) only where he or she is satisfied that it is appropriate to consider such matters in order to accurately identify and assess the risks of money laundering or terrorist financing.

(8) A designated person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment to a fine or imprisonment not exceeding 5 years (or both).]

30B.— (1) For the purposes of determining the extent of measures to be taken under subsections (2) and (2A) of section 33 and subsections (1) and (3) of section 35 a designated person shall identify and assess the risk of money laundering and terrorist financing in relation to the customer or transaction concerned, having regard to—

(a) the relevant business risk assessment,

(b) the matters specified in section 30A(2),

(c) any relevant risk variables, including at least the following:

(i) the purpose of an account or relationship;

(ii) the level of assets to be deposited by a customer or the size of transactions undertaken;

(iii) the regularity of transactions or duration of the business relationship;

(iv) any additional prescribed risk variable,

(d) the presence of any factor specified in Schedule 3 or prescribed under section 34A suggesting potentially lower risk,

(e) the presence of any factor specified in Schedule 4, and

(f) any additional prescribed factor suggesting potentially higher risk.

(2) A determination by a designated person under subsection (1) shall be documented where the competent authority for the designated person, having regard to the size and nature of the designated person and the need to accurately identify and assess the risks of money laundering or terrorist financing, so directs.

(3) For the purposes of subsection (2), a State competent authority may direct a class of designated persons for whom it is the competent authority to document a determination in writing.

(4) The Minister may prescribe additional risk variables to which regard is to be had under subsection (1)(c)(iv) only where he or she is satisfied that it is appropriate to consider such matters in order to accurately identify and assess the risks of money laundering or terrorist financing.

(5) A designated person who fails to document a determination in accordance with a direction under subsection (2) commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment to a fine or imprisonment not exceeding 5 years (or both).]

31.— F42[…]

32.— F43[…]

33.— (1) A designated person shall apply the measures specified in F44[subsection (2)], in relation to a customer of the designated person—

(a) prior to establishing a business relationship with the customer,

(b) prior to carrying out an occasional transaction with, for or on behalf of the customer or assisting the customer to carry out an occasional transaction,

F45[(c) prior to carrying out any service for the customer, if, having regard to the circumstances, including—

(i) the customer, or the type of customer, concerned,

(ii) the type of any business relationship which the person has with the customer,

(iii) the type of service or of any transaction or product in respect of which the service is sought,

(iv) the purpose (or the customer’s explanation of the purpose) of the service or of any transaction or product in respect of which the service is sought,

(v) the value of any transaction or product in respect of which the service is sought,

(vi) the source (or the customer’s explanation of the source) of funds for any such transaction or product,

the person has reasonable grounds to suspect that the customer is involved in, or the service, transaction or product sought by the customer is for the purpose of, money laundering or terrorist financing, or]

or

(d) prior to carrying out any service for the customer if—

(i) the person has reasonable grounds to doubt the veracity or adequacy of documents (whether or not in electronic form) or information that the person has previously obtained for the purpose of verifying the identity of the customer, whether obtained under this section or section 32 of the Criminal Justice Act 1994 (“the 1994 Act”) prior to its repeal by this Act or under any administrative arrangements that the person may have applied before section 32 of the 1994 Act operated in relation to the person, and

(ii) the person has not obtained any other documents or information that the person has reasonable grounds to believe can be relied upon to confirm the identity of the F44[customer,]

F46[and

(e) at any time, including a situation where the relevant circumstances of a customer have changed, where the risk of money laundering and terrorist financing warrants their F47[application, or]]

F48[(f) at any time where the designated person is obliged by virtue of any enactment or rule of law, including the European Union (Administrative Cooperation in the Field of Taxation) Regulations 2012 (S.I. No. 549 of 2012), to contact a customer for the purposes of reviewing any relevant information relating to the beneficial owner connected with the customer.]

(2) The measures that shall be applied F46[, in accordance with section 30B,] by a designated person under subsection (1) are as follows:

(a) identifying the customer, and verifying the customer’s identity on the basis of documents (whether or not in electronic form), or information, that the designated person has reasonable grounds to believe can be relied upon to confirm the identity of the customer, including—

(i) documents from a government source (whether or not a State government source), F49[…]

F48[(ia) information from relevant trust services as specified in the Electronic Identification Regulation, or]

(ii) any prescribed class of documents, or any prescribed combination of classes of documents;

(b) identifying any beneficial owner connected with the customer or service concerned, and taking measures reasonably warranted by the risk of money laundering or terrorist financing—

(i) to verify the beneficial owner’s identity to the extent necessary to ensure that the person has reasonable grounds to be satisfied that the person knows who the beneficial owner is, F49[…]

(ii) in the case of a legal entity or legal arrangement of a kind referred to in section 26, 27, 28 or 30, to understand the ownership and control structure of the entity or arrangement F47[concerned, and]

F48[(iii) where the beneficial owner is the senior managing official referred to in Article 3(6)(a)(ii) of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive, a designated person shall take the necessary measures to verify the identity of that person and shall keep records of the actions taken to verify the person’s identity including any difficulties encountered in the verification process.]

F46[(2A) When applying the measures specified in subsection (2), a designated person shall verify that any person purporting to act on behalf of the customer is so authorised and identify and verify the identity of that person in accordance with subsection (2).]

(3) Nothing in subsection (2)(a)(i) or (ii) limits the kinds of documents or information that a designated person may have reasonable grounds to believe can be relied upon to confirm the identity of a customer.

(4) F50[…]

(5) Notwithstanding subsection (1)(a), a designated person may verify the identity of a customer or beneficial owner, in accordance with F44[subsection (2)], during the establishment of a business relationship with the customer if the designated person has reasonable grounds to believe that—

(a) verifying the identity of the customer or beneficial owner (as the case may be) prior to the establishment of the relationship would interrupt the normal conduct of business, and

(b) there is no real risk that the customer is involved in, or the service sought by the customer is for the purpose of, money laundering or terrorist financing,

but the designated person shall take reasonable steps to verify the identity of the customer or beneficial owner, in accordance with F44[subsection (2)], as soon as practicable.

(6) Notwithstanding subsection (1)(a), F44[a credit institution or financial institution may allow an account, including an account that permits transactions in transferable securities, to be opened with it] by a customer before verifying the identity of the customer or a beneficial owner, in accordance with F44[subsection (2)], so long as the institution ensures that transactions in connection with the account are not carried out by or on behalf of the customer or beneficial owner before carrying out that verification.

F51[(7) In addition to the measures required in relation to a customer and a beneficial owner under this section, credit institutions and financial institutions shall apply the measures specified in subsections (7A) to (7C) to the beneficiaries of life assurance and other investment-related assurance policies.

(7A) As soon as the beneficiaries of life assurance and other investment-related assurance policies are identified or designated, a credit institution or financial institution shall—

(a) take the names of beneficiaries that are identified as specifically named persons or legal arrangements, and

(b) in the case of beneficiaries designated by characteristics, class or other means, obtain sufficient information to satisfy the institution that it will be able to establish the identity of the beneficiary at the time of the payout.

(7B) A credit institution or financial institution shall verify the identity of a beneficiary referred to in paragraph (a) or (b) of subsection (7A) at the time of the payout in accordance with subsection (2).

(7C) In the case of assignment, in whole or in part, of a policy of life assurance or other investment-related assurance to a third party, a credit institution or financial institution that is aware of the assignment shall identify the beneficial owner at the time of the assignment to the natural or legal person, or legal arrangement, receiving for his or her, or its, own benefit the value of the policy assigned.

(7D) In addition to the measures required in relation to a customer and a beneficial owner, in the case of beneficiaries of trusts or of similar legal arrangements that are designated by particular characteristics or class, a designated person shall obtain sufficient information concerning the beneficiary to satisfy the designated person that it will be able to establish the identity of the beneficiary at the time of the payout or at the time of the exercise by the beneficiary of its vested rights.]

(8) F52[Subject to subsection (8A), a designated person] who is unable to apply the measures specified in F52[subsection (2) or (4)] in relation to a customer, as a result of any failure on the part of the customer to provide the designated person with documents or information required under this section—

(a) shall not provide the service or carry out the transaction sought by that customer for so long as the failure remains unrectified, and

(b) shall discontinue the business relationship (if any) with the customer.

F53[(8A) Nothing in subsection (8) or section 35(2) shall operate to prevent a relevant independent legal professional or relevant professional adviser—

(a) ascertaining the legal position of a person, or

(b) performing the task of defending or representing a person in, or in relation to, civil or criminal proceedings, including providing advice on instituting or avoiding such proceedings.]

(9) F52[A designated person] who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).

(10) F50[…]

(11) The Minister may prescribe a class of documents, or a combination of classes of documents, for the purposes of subsection (2)(a)(ii), only if the Minister is satisfied that the class or combination of documents would be adequate to verify the identity of customers of designated persons.

(12) For the purposes of subsection (2)(a)(ii), the Minister may prescribe different classes of documents, or combinations of classes of documents, for different kinds of designated persons, customers, transactions, services or risks of money laundering or terrorist financing.

33A.— (1) Subject to section 33(1)(c) and (d) and subsection (2), a designated person is not required to apply the measures specified in subsection (2) or (2A) of section 33, or section 35, with respect to electronic money if—

(a) the payment instrument concerned—

(i) is not reloadable, or

(ii) cannot be used outside of the State and has a maximum monthly payment transactions limit not exceeding F55[€150],

F55[(b) the monetary value that may be stored electronically on the payment instrument concerned does not exceed €150,]

(c) the payment instrument concerned is used exclusively to purchase goods and services,

(d) the payment instrument concerned cannot be funded with anonymous electronic money,

(e) the issuer of the payment instrument concerned carries out sufficient monitoring of the transactions or business relationship concerned to enable the detection of unusual or suspicious transactions, F56[…]

(f) the transaction concerned is not a redemption in cash or cash withdrawal of the monetary value of the electronic money of an amount exceeding F55[€50, and]

F57[(g) the transaction concerned is not a remote payment transaction (within the meaning of Article 4 of Directive (EU) 2015/2366 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 25 November 20153 on payment services in the internal market, amending Directives 2002/65/EC, 2009/110/EC and 2013/36/EU and Regulation (EU) No. 1093/2010, and repealing Directive 2007/64/EC) of an amount exceeding €50.]

(2) A designated person shall not apply the exemption provided for in subsection (1) if—

(a) the customer concerned is established, or resident in, a high-risk third country, or

(b) the designated person is required to apply measures, in relation to the customer or beneficial owner (if any) concerned, under section 37.]

F57[(3) A credit institution or financial institution acting as an acquirer shall not accept a payment carried out with an anonymous prepaid card issued in a state other than a Member State unless the payment instrument concerned complies with the requirements of subsections (1) and (2).

(4) A person who fails to comply with subsection (3) commits an offence and is liable—

(i) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months, or both, or

(ii) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years, or both.]

34.— F58[…]

34A.— (1) Subject to section 33(1)(c) and (d), a designated person may take the measures specified in sections 33(2) and 35 in such manner, to such extent and at such times as is reasonably warranted by the lower risk of money laundering or terrorist financing in relation to a business relationship or transaction where the designated person—

(a) identifies in the relevant business risk assessment, an area of lower risk into which the relationship or transaction falls, and

(b) considers that the relationship or transaction presents a lower degree of risk.

(2) For the purposes of identifying an area of lower risk a designated person shall have regard to—

(a) the matters specified in section 30A(2),

(b) the presence of any factor specified in Schedule 3, and

(c) any additional prescribed factor suggesting potentially lower risk.

(3) Where a designated person applies simplified due diligence measures in accordance with subsection (1) it shall—

(a) keep a record of the reasons for its determination and the evidence on which it was based, and

(b) carry out sufficient monitoring of the transactions and business relationships to enable the designated person to detect unusual or suspicious transactions.

(4) The Minister may prescribe other factors, additional to those specified in Schedule 3, to which a designated person is to have regard under subsection (2) only if he or she is satisfied that the presence of those factors suggests a potentially lower risk of money laundering or terrorist financing.

(5) For the purposes of subsection (1), a business relationship or transaction may be considered to present a lower degree of risk if a reasonable person having regard to the matters specified in paragraphs (a) to (f) of section 30B(1) would determine that the relationship or transaction presents a lower degree of risk of money laundering or terrorist financing.]

35.— (1) A designated person shall obtain information reasonably warranted by the risk of money laundering or terrorist financing on the purpose and intended nature of a business relationship with a customer prior to the establishment of the relationship.

(2) F60[Subject to section 33(8A), a designated person] who is unable to obtain such information, as a result of any failure on the part of the customer, shall not provide the service sought by the customer for so long as the failure continues.

F60[(3) A designated person shall monitor any business relationship that it has with a customer to the extent reasonably warranted by the risk of money laundering or terrorist financing.]

F61[(3A) Prior to the establishment of a business relationship with a customer to which the European Union (Anti-Money Laundering: Beneficial Ownership of Trusts) Regulations 2021 (S.I. No. 194 of 2021) apply, a designated person shall ascertain that information concerning the beneficial ownership of the customer is entered in the relevant trust’s beneficial ownership register or in the Central Register of Beneficial Ownership of trusts, as the case may be.]

F62[(3B) Notwithstanding subsection (3A), a designated person that is a credit institution or a financial institution may allow an account to be opened with it by a customer before ascertaining that the information concerning the beneficial ownership of the customer is entered in the express trust (beneficial ownership) register in accordance with subsection (3A) so long as the designated person ensures that transactions in connection with the account are not carried out by or on behalf of the customer or beneficial owner before ascertaining that information.

(3C) Prior to the establishment of a business relationship with a customer to which the European Union (Anti-Money Laundering: Beneficial Ownership of Corporate Entities) Regulations 2019 ( S.I. No. 110 of 2019 ) (modified by the European Union (Modifications of Statutory Instrument No. 110 of 2019) (Registration of Beneficial Ownership of Certain Financial Vehicles Regulations 2020) ( S.I. No. 233 of 2020 ) apply, a designated person shall ascertain that information concerning the beneficial ownership of the customer is entered in the Central Register of Beneficial Ownership of Companies and Industrial Provident Societies or, as the case may be, the Central Register of Beneficial Ownership of Irish Collective Asset-management Vehicles, Credit Unions and Unit Trusts.

(3D) Notwithstanding subsection (3C), a designated person that is a credit institution or a financial institution may allow an account to be opened with it by a customer before ascertaining that information concerning the beneficial ownership of the customer is entered in the Central Register of Beneficial Ownership of Companies and Industrial Provident Societies or, as the case may be, Central Register of Beneficial Ownership of Irish Collective Asset-management Vehicles, Credit Unions and Unit Trusts in accordance with subsection (3C) so long as the designated person ensures that transactions in connection with the account are not carried out by or on behalf of the customer or beneficial owner before ascertaining that information.]

(4) Except as provided by section 36, a designated person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).

36.— F63[…]

36A.— F65[(1) A designated person shall, as far as possible, in accordance with policies and procedures adopted in accordance with section 54, examine the background and purpose of all transactions that—

(a) are complex,

(b) are unusually large,

(c) are conducted in an unusual pattern, or

(d) do not have an apparent economic or lawful purpose.]

(2) A designated person shall increase the degree and nature of monitoring of a business relationship in order to determine whether transactions referred to in subsection (1) appear suspicious.

(3) A designated person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).]

37.— F66[(1) A designated person shall take steps to determine whether or not—

(a) a customer, or a beneficial owner connected with the customer or service concerned, or

(b) a beneficiary of a life assurance policy or other investment-related assurance policy, or a beneficial owner of the beneficiary,

is a politically exposed person or an immediate family member, or a close associate, of a politically exposed person.]

F66[(2) The designated person shall take the steps referred to in subsection (1)—

(a) in relation to a person referred to subsection (1)(a), prior to—

(i) establishing a business relationship with the customer, or

(ii) carrying out an occasional transaction with, for or on behalf of the customer or assisting the customer to carry out an occasional transaction,

and

(b) in relation to a person mentioned in subsection (1)(b)—

(i) prior to the payout of the policy, or

(ii) at the time of the assignment, in whole or in part, of the policy.]

(3) The steps to be taken are such steps as are reasonably warranted by the risk that the customer F67[, or beneficiary] or beneficial owner (as the case may be) is involved in money laundering or terrorist financing.

F68[(4) If a designated person knows or has reasonable grounds to believe that a customer F69[…] is, or has become, a politically exposed person or an immediate family member or close associate of a politically exposed person, the designated person shall—

(a) ensure that approval is obtained from senior management of the designated person before a business relationship is established or continued with the customer,

(b) determine the source of wealth and of funds for the following transactions—

(i) transactions the subject of any business relationship with the customer that are carried out with the customer or in respect of which a service is sought, or

(ii) any occasional transaction that the designated person carries out with, for or on behalf of the customer or that the designated person assists the customer to carry out,

and

F66[(c) in addition to measures to be applied in accordance with section 35(3), apply enhanced monitoring of the business relationship with the customer.]]

F70[(4A) A designated person shall continue to apply the measures referred to in subsection (4) to a politically exposed person for as long as is reasonably required to take into account the continuing risk posed by that person and until such time as that person is deemed to pose no further risk specific to politically exposed persons.]

(5) Notwithstanding subsections (2)(a) and (4)(a), a credit institution F67[or financial institution] may allow a bank account to be opened with it by a customer before taking the steps referred to in subsection (1) or seeking the approval referred to in subsection (4)(a), so long as the institution ensures that transactions in connection with the account are not carried out by or on behalf of the customer or any beneficial owner concerned before taking the steps or seeking the approval, as the case may be.

(6) If a designated person knows or has reasonable grounds to believe that a beneficial owner F69[…] connected with a customer or with a service sought by a customer, F68[is, or has become, a politically exposed person] or an immediate family member or close associate of a politically exposed person, the designated person shall apply the measures specified in F68[subsection (4)(a), (b) and (c)] in relation to the customer concerned.

F67[(6A) If a designated person knows or has reasonable grounds to believe that a beneficiary of a life assurance or other investment-related assurance policy, or a beneficial owner of the beneficiary concerned, is a politically exposed person, or an immediate family member or a close associate of a politically exposed person, and that, having regard to section 39, there is a higher risk of money laundering or terrorist financing, it shall—

(a) inform senior management before payout of policy proceeds, and

(b) conduct enhanced scrutiny of the business relationship with the policy holder.]

(7) For the purposes of F66[subsections (4), (6) and (6A)], a designated person is deemed to know that another person is a politically exposed person or an immediate family member or close associate of a politically exposed person if, on the basis of—

(a) information in the possession of the designated person (whether obtained under subsections (1) to (3) or otherwise),

(b) in a case where the designated person has contravened subsection (1) or (2), information that would have been in the possession of the person if the person had complied with that provision, or

(c) public knowledge,

there are reasonable grounds for concluding that the designated person so knows.

(8) A designated person who is unable to apply the measures specified in subsection (1), (3), (4) or (6) in relation to a customer, as a result of any failure on the part of the customer to provide the designated person with documents or information—

(a) shall discontinue the business relationship (if any) with the customer for so long as the failure continues, and

(b) shall not provide the service or carry out the transaction sought by the customer for so long as the failure continues.

(9) A person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).

(10) In this section—

“close associate” of a politically exposed person includes any of the following persons:

(a) any individual who has joint beneficial ownership of a legal entity or legal arrangement, or any other close business relations, with the politically exposed person;

(b) any individual who has sole beneficial ownership of a legal entity or legal arrangement set up for the actual benefit of the politically exposed person;

“immediate family member” of a politically exposed person includes any of the following persons:

(a) any spouse of the politically exposed person;

(b) any person who is considered to be equivalent to a spouse of the politically exposed person under the national or other law of the place where the person or politically exposed person resides;

(c) any child of the politically exposed person;

(d) any spouse of a child of the politically exposed person;

(e) any person considered to be equivalent to a spouse of a child of the politically exposed person under the national or other law of the place where the person or child resides;

(f) any parent of the politically exposed person;

(g) any other family member of the politically exposed person who is of a prescribed class;

“politically exposed person” means an individual who is, or has at any time in the preceding 12 months been, entrusted with a prominent public function, including F71[any of the following individuals] (but not including any middle ranking or more junior official):

(a) a specified official;

(b) a member of the administrative, management or supervisory body of a state-owned enterprise;

F70[(c) any individual performing a prescribed function;]

“specified official” means any of the following officials (including any such officials in an institution of the European Communities or an international body):

(a) a head of state, head of government, government minister or deputy or assistant government minister;

(b) a member of a parliament F67[or of a similar legislative body];

F67[(bb) a member of the governing body of a political party;]

(c) a member of a supreme court, constitutional court or other high level judicial body whose decisions, other than in exceptional circumstances, are not subject to further appeal;

(d) a member of a court of auditors or of the board of a central bank;

F66[(e) an ambassador, chargé d’affairs or high-ranking officer in the armed forces;]

F67[(f) a director, deputy director or member of the board of, or person performing the equivalent function in relation to, an international organisation.]

(11) The Minister may prescribe a class of family member of a politically exposed person, for the purposes of paragraph (g) of the definition of “immediate family member” of a politically exposed person in subsection (10), only if the Minister is satisfied that it would be appropriate for the provisions of this section to be applied in relation to members of the class, having regard to any heightened risk, arising from their close family relationship with the politically exposed person, that such members may be involved in money laundering or terrorist financing.

F70[(12) The Minister may, with the consent of the Minister for Finance, issue guidelines to the competent authorities in respect of functions in the State that may be considered to be prominent public functions and each competent authority shall have regard to any such guidelines.

(13) The Minister may, where he or she believes it is necessary to do so, and with the consent of the Minister for Finance, issue guidelines to the competent authorities for the purpose of facilitating the consistent, effective and risk-based application of this section.]

F72[38.— (1) A credit institution or financial institution ("the institution") shall not enter into a correspondent relationship F73[involving the execution of payments] with another credit institution or financial institution ("the respondent institution") F74[…] unless, prior to commencing the relationship, the institution—

(a) has gathered sufficient information about the respondent institution to understand fully the nature of the business of the respondent institution,

(b) is satisfied on reasonable grounds, based on publicly available information, that the reputation of the respondent institution, and the quality of supervision or monitoring of the operation of the respondent institution in the place, are sound,

(c) is satisfied on reasonable grounds, having assessed the anti-money laundering and anti-terrorist financing controls applied by the respondent institution, that those controls are sound,

(d) has ensured that approval has been obtained from the senior management of the institution,

(e) has documented the responsibilities of each institution in applying anti-money laundering and anti-terrorist financing controls to customers in the conduct of the correspondent relationship and, in particular—

(i) the responsibilities of the institution arising under this Part, and

(ii) any responsibilities of the respondent institution arising under requirements equivalent to those specified in the Fourth Money Laundering Directive,

and

(f) in the case of a proposal that customers of the respondent institution have direct access to a payable-through account held with the institution in the name of the respondent institution, is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the respondent institution—

(i) has identified and verified the identity of those customers, and is able to provide to the institution, upon request, the documents (whether or not in electronic form) or information used by the institution to identify and verify the identity of those customers,

(ii) has applied measures equivalent to the measure referred to in section 35(1) in relation to those customers, and

(iii) is applying measures equivalent to the measure referred to in section 35(3) in relation to those customers.

(2) A person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).]

38A.— F76[(1) Subject to subsection (2), a designated person shall apply the following measures to manage and mitigate the risk of money laundering and terrorist financing additional to those specified in this chapter, when dealing with a customer established or residing in a high-risk third country:

(a) obtaining additional information on the customer and on the beneficial owner;

(b) obtaining additional information on the intended nature of the business relationship;

(c) obtaining information on the source of funds and source of wealth of the customer and of the beneficial owner;

(d) obtaining information on the reasons for the intended or performed transactions;

(e) obtaining the approval of senior management for establishing or continuing the business relationship;

(f) conducting enhanced monitoring of the business relationship by increasing the number and timing of controls applied and selecting patterns of transaction that need further examination.]

(2) Subsection (1) shall not apply where—

(a) the customer is a branch or majority-owned subsidiary of a designated person and is located in a high-risk third country,

(b) the designated person referred to in paragraph (a) is established in a Member State, and

(c) the branch or majority-owned subsidiary referred to in paragraph (a) is in compliance with the group-wide policies and procedures of the group of which it is a member adopted in accordance with Article 45 of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive.

(3) In the circumstances specified in subsection (2), the designated person shall—

(a) identify and assess the risk of money laundering or terrorist financing in relation to the business relationship or transaction concerned, having regard to section 30B, and

(b) apply customer due diligence measures specified in this Chapter to the extent reasonably warranted by the risk of money laundering or terrorist financing.

(4) A designated person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).]

F78[39.— (1) Without prejudice to sections 37, 38 and 59, a designated person shall apply measures to manage and mitigate the risk of money laundering or terrorist financing, additional to those specified in this Chapter, to a business relationship or transaction that presents a higher degree of risk.

(2) For the purposes of subsection (1) a business relationship or transaction shall be considered to present a higher degree of risk if a reasonable person having regard to the matters specified in paragraphs (a) to (f) of section 30B(1) would determine that the business relationship or transaction presents a higher risk of money laundering or terrorist financing.

(3) The Minister may prescribe other factors, additional to those specified in Schedule 4, suggesting potentially higher risk only if he or she is satisfied that the presence of those factors suggests a potentially higher risk of money laundering or terrorist financing.

(4) A designated person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).]]

40.— (1) In this section, “relevant third party” means—

(a) a person, carrying on business as a designated person in the State—

(i) that is a credit institution,

(ii) that is a financial institution (other than an undertaking that is a financial institution solely because the undertaking provides either foreign exchange services or payment services, or both),

(iii) who is an external accountant or auditor and who is also a member of a designated accountancy body,

(iv) who is a tax adviser, and who is also a solicitor or a member of a designated accountancy body or of the Irish Taxation Institute,

(v) who is a relevant independent legal professional, or

(vi) who is a trust or company service provider, and who is also a member of a designated accountancy body, a solicitor or authorised to carry on business by the F79[Central Bank of Ireland],

(b) a person carrying on business in another Member State who is supervised or monitored for compliance with the requirements specified in F80[the Fourth Money Laundering Directive, in accordance with Section 2 of Chapter VI of that Directive] and is—

(i) a credit institution authorised to operate as a credit institution under the laws of the Member State,

(ii) a financial institution (other than an undertaking that is a financial institution solely because the undertaking provides either foreign exchange services or payment services, or both) and authorised to operate as a financial institution under the laws of the Member State, or

(iii) an external accountant, auditor, tax adviser, legal professional or trust or company service provider subject to mandatory professional registration or mandatory professional supervision under the laws of the other Member State,

F81[…]

(c) a person who carries on business in F80[a place (other than a Member State) which is not a high-risk third country], is supervised or monitored in the place for compliance with requirements equivalent to those specified in F80[the Fourth Money Laundering Directive], and is—

(i) a credit institution authorised to operate as a credit institution under the laws of the place,

(ii) a financial institution (other than an undertaking that is a financial institution solely because the undertaking provides either foreign exchange services or payment services, or both) authorised to operate as a financial institution under the laws of the place, or

(iii) an external accountant, auditor, tax adviser, legal professional or trust or company service provider subject to mandatory professional registration or mandatory professional supervision under the laws of F80[the place, or]

F82[(d) a person who carries on business in a high-risk third country, is a branch or majority-owned subsidiary of an obliged entity established in the Union, and fully complies with group-wide policies and procedures in accordance with Article 45 of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive and is—

(i) a credit institution authorised to operate as a credit institution under the laws of the place,

(ii) a financial institution (other than an undertaking that is a financial institution solely because the undertaking provides either foreign exchange services or payment services, or both) authorised to operate as a financial institution under the laws of the place, or

(iii) an external accountant, auditor, tax adviser, legal professional or trust or company service provider subject to mandatory professional registration or mandatory professional supervision under the laws of the place.]

F82[(1A) Without prejudice to the generality of paragraphs (b) and (c) of subsection (1), for the purposes of those paragraphs, a person is supervised or monitored for compliance with the requirements specified in the Fourth Money Laundering Directive, in accordance with Section 2 of Chapter VI, or requirements equivalent to those requirements, where—

(a) the person and the designated person seeking to rely upon this section are part of the same group,

(b) the group applies customer due diligence and record keeping measures and policies and procedures to prevent and detect the commission of money laundering and terrorist financing in accordance with the Fourth Money Laundering Directive or requirements equivalent to those specified in the Fourth Money Laundering Directive, and

(c) the effective implementation of the requirements referred to in paragraph (b) is supervised at group level by a competent authority of the state where the parent company is incorporated.]

(2) A reference in subsection (1)(b)(iii) and (c)(iii) to a legal professional is a reference to a person who, by way of business, provides legal or notarial services.

(3) Subject to subsections (4) and (5), a designated person may rely on a relevant third party to apply, in relation to a customer of the designated person, any of the measures that the designated person is required to apply, in relation to the customer, under section 33 or 35 (1).

(4) A designated person may rely on a relevant third party to apply a measure under section 33 or 35 (1) only if—

(a) there is an arrangement between the designated person (or, in the case of a designated person who is an employee, the designated person’s employer) and the relevant third party under which it has been agreed that the designated person may rely on the relevant third party to apply any such measure, and

(b) F80[the designated person is satisfied that the circumstances specified in paragraphs (a) to (c) of subsection (1A) exist, or] on the basis of the arrangement, that the relevant third party will forward to the designated person, as soon as practicable after a request from the designated person, any documents (whether or not in electronic form) or information relating to the customer F83[(including any information from relevant trust services as set out in the Electronic Identification Regulation)] that has been obtained by the relevant third party in applying the measure.

(5) A designated person who relies on a relevant third party to apply a measure under section 33 or 35(1) remains liable, under section 33 or 35(1), for any failure to apply the measure.

(6) A reference in this section to a relevant third party on whom a designated person may rely to apply a measure under section 33 or 35(1) does not include a reference to a person who applies the measure as an outsourcing service provider or an agent of the designated person.

(7) Nothing in this section prevents a designated person applying a measure under section 33 or 35(1) by means of an outsourcing service provider or agent provided that the designated person remains liable for any failure to apply the measure.

40A.— (1) FIU Ireland may carry out, on behalf of the State, all the functions of an EU Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) under the Fourth Money Laundering F86[Directive and Directive (EU) 2019/1153].

(2) In this Part "FIU Ireland" means those members of the Garda Síochána, or members of the civilian staff of the Garda Síochána, appointed by the Commissioner of the Garda Síochána in that behalf.]

F87[(3) In this Chapter the following have the same meaning as they have in Directive (EU) 2019/1153:

(a) associate predicate offences;

(b) financial analysis;

(c) financial information;

(d) serious criminal offences.]

40B.— (1) FIU Ireland shall be responsible for receiving and analysing suspicious transaction reports and other information relevant to money laundering or terrorist financing for the purpose of preventing, detecting and investigating possible money laundering or terrorist financing.

(2) FIU Ireland’s analysis function shall consist of conducting—

(a) an operational analysis which focuses on individual cases and specific targets or on appropriate selected information depending on the type and volume of the disclosures received and the expected use of the information after dissemination, and

(b) a strategic analysis addressing money laundering and terrorist financing trends and patterns.]

40C.— (1) A member of the Garda Síochána who is a member of FIU Ireland shall have access to the central registers established by the State for the purposes of paragraph (3) of Article 30 and paragraph (4) of Article 31 of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive.

(2) A member of the Garda Síochána who is a member of FIU Ireland may, for the purposes of preventing, detecting, investigating or combating money laundering or terrorist financing request any person to provide FIU Ireland with information held by that person under any enactment giving effect to paragraph (1) of Article 30 or paragraph (1) of Article 31 of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive.

(3) A member of the Garda Síochána who is a member of FIU Ireland may make a request in writing for any financial, administrative or law enforcement information that FIU Ireland requires in order to carry out its functions from any of the following:

(a) a designated person;

(b) a competent authority;

(c) the Revenue Commissioners;

(d) the Minister for Employment Affairs and Social Protection.

(4) A designated person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a request for information under subsection (2) or (3) commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment to a fine not exceeding €500,000 or imprisonment not exceeding 3 years (or both).]

40CA.— (1) An Article 3(2) authority shall reply, in a timely manner, to reasoned and necessary requests by a member of the Garda Síochána who is appointed to FIU Ireland, made on a case-by-case basis, for law enforcement information, where the information is necessary for the prevention, detection and combating of money laundering, associate predicate offences and terrorist financing.

(2) In this section—

"law enforcement information" has the same meaning as it has in Directive (EU) 2019/1153;

"terrorist financing" has the same meaning as it has in Directive (EU) 2019/1153.]

40D.— (1) FIU Ireland shall respond as soon as practicable to any request for information which is based on a concern relating to money laundering or terrorist financing that it receives from—

(a) a competent authority,

(b) the Revenue Commissioners, or

(c) the Minister for Employment Affairs and Social Protection.

(2) FIU Ireland may provide the results of its analyses and any additional relevant information to a person mentioned in subsection (1) where there are grounds to suspect money laundering or terrorist financing.

(3) FIU Ireland shall be under no obligation to comply with the request for information where there are objective grounds for assuming that the provision of such information would have a negative impact on ongoing investigations or analyses, or, in exceptional circumstances, where disclosure of the information would be clearly disproportionate to the legitimate interests of a natural or legal person or irrelevant with regard to the purposes for which it has been requested.]

40DA.— (1) Subject to subsection (2), FIU Ireland shall cooperate with the Article 3(2) authorities and shall reply, in a timely manner, to reasoned and necessary requests by those authorities, made on a case-by-case basis, for financial information or financial analysis, where the requests are motivated by concerns relating to the prevention, detection, investigation or prosecution of serious criminal offences.

(2) FIU Ireland shall not be obliged to comply with requests referred to in subsection (1) –

(a) where, in the opinion of FIU Ireland, there are objective grounds for assuming that the provision of such information would have a negative impact on ongoing investigations or analyses, or

(b) in exceptional circumstances, where, in the opinion of FIU Ireland, disclosure of the information would be clearly disproportionate to the legitimate interests of a natural or legal person, or irrelevant with regard to the purposes for which it has been requested.

(3) The financial information or financial analysis obtained by an Article 3(2) authority as a result of a request referred to in subsection (1) may only be used for a purpose other than the purpose of the request where FIU Ireland has given its prior consent.

(4) Where FIU Ireland refuses to accede to a request referred to in subsection (1), it shall provide an appropriate explanation for the refusal to the Article 3(2) authority concerned.

(5) The Article 3(2) authorities may process the financial information and financial analysis received from FIU Ireland for the specific purposes of preventing, detecting, investigating or prosecuting serious criminal offences.]

40E.— (1) FIU Ireland may share information with other Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), in accordance with subsection III of Section 3 of Chapter VI of F95[the Fourth Money Laundering Directive (as amended by the Fifth Money Laundering Directive)].

(2) FIU Ireland may provide any information obtained by it—

(a) from a central register referred to in section 40C(1), or

(b) following a request under subsection (2) or (3) of section 40C,

to a competent authority or to another FIU.]

F96[(3) FIU Ireland may provide any information obtained by it from the Central Mechanism (within the meaning of the European Union (Anti-Money Laundering: Central Mechanism for Information on Safe-Deposit Boxes and Bank and Payment Accounts) Regulations 2022 (S.I. No. 46 of 2022)) to another FIU.]

F97[(4) Without prejudice to subsection (1), in exceptional and urgent cases and insofar as is practicable in a prompt manner, FIU Ireland may exchange with other FIUs financial information or financial analysis that may be relevant for the processing or analysis of information related to terrorism or organised crime associated with terrorism.]

40F.— (1) An Article 3(2) authority may share financial information or financial analysis obtained from FIU Ireland, upon request and on a case-by-case basis, with an authority in another Member State that has been designated by that Member State under Article 3(2) of Directive (EU) 2019/1153, where that financial information or financial analysis is necessary for the prevention, detection and combating of money laundering, associate predicate offences and terrorist financing.

(2) Any –

(a) dissemination of financial information or financial analysis obtained by an Article 3(2) authority from FIU Ireland to any other authority, agency or department, or

(b) use of that information or analysis for purposes other than those for which the information was originally provided by FIU Ireland,

shall be subject to the prior consent of FIU Ireland.

(3) An Article 3(2) authority may request from an authority in another Member State that has been designated by that Member State under Article 3(2) of Directive (EU) 2019/1153, on a case-by-case basis, financial information or financial analysis that was obtained from the Financial Intelligence Unit in that Member State, where the financial information or financial analysis is necessary for the prevention, detection and combating of money laundering, associate predicate offences and terrorist financing.

(4) An Article 3(2) authority that receives financial information or financial analysis pursuant to a request under subsection (3) shall use that information or analysis only for the purpose for which it was sought or provided.

(5) FIU Ireland and Article 3(2) authorities shall ensure that financial information and financial analysis requested or shared under this section shall be transmitted using dedicated secure electronic communications ensuring a high level of data security.

(6) In this section "terrorist financing" has the same meaning as it has in Directive (EU) 2019/1153.]

40G.— (1) FIU Ireland may reply to Europol to duly justified requests related to financial information and financial analysis made by Europol on a case-by-case basis within the limits of Europol’s responsibilities and for the performance of Europol’s tasks.

(2) FIU Ireland shall be under no obligation to comply with a request referred to in subsection (1) where there are objective grounds for assuming that the provision of the financial information and financial analysis to which the request relates would have a negative impact on ongoing investigations or analyses, or, in exceptional circumstances, where disclosure of the information and analysis would be clearly disproportionate to the legitimate interests of a natural or legal person or irrelevant with regard to the purposes for which it has been requested.

(3) FIU Ireland shall be under no obligation to comply with a request referred to in subsection (1) where to do so would —

(a) be contrary to the essential interests of the security of the State,

(b) jeopardise the success of an ongoing investigation or the safety of an individual, or

(c) disclose information relating to organisations or specific intelligence activities in the field of national security, but FIU Ireland shall comply with the request as soon as the financial information or financial analysis in question ceases to fall within the scope of paragraphs (a), (b) or (c).

(4) FIU Ireland shall –

(a) provide an appropriate explanation to Europol for any failure to comply with a request made under subsection (1),

(b) ensure that requests under subsection (1) are dealt with in a timely manner, and in any event no later than requests from FIUs (as referred to in section 40A(1)) in other Member States, and

(c) ensure that replies to requests under subsection (1) are made in accordance with Regulation (EU) 2016/794 electronically through —

(i) the information exchange network commonly known as SIENA, or its successor, in the language applicable to SIENA, or

(ii) where applicable, to the computer network commonly known as FIU.net, or its successor.]

40H.— (1) Article 3(2) authorities and FIU Ireland shall, in respect of information exchanged pursuant to section 40CA, section 40DA, section 40E(4), section 40F and section 40G, ensure that only staff who have been specifically trained and specifically authorised may process the following special categories of personal data under the guidance of a data protection officer:

(a) personal data revealing —

(i) the racial or ethnic origin of the data subject,

(ii) the political opinions or the religious or philosophical beliefs of the data subject, or

(iii) whether the data subject is a member of a trade union;

(b) data concerning health;

(c) personal data concerning an individual’s sex life or sexual orientation.

(2) In this section the following expressions shall have the meaning that they have in section 69 of the Data Protection Act 2018:

"data subject";

"personal data";

"processing";

"special categories of personal data".]

40I.— (1) Article 3(2) authorities and FIU Ireland shall keep records of requests made and received under section 40CA, section 40DA, section 40E(4), section 40F and section 40G.

(2) The records made shall include -

(a) the name and contact details of the organisation and of the staff member requesting the information and, as far as possible, of the recipient of the results of the query or search,

(b) the reference to the national case in relation to which the information is requested,

(c) the subject matter of the requests, and

(d) any executing measures of such requests.

(3) The records shall be –

(a) kept for a period of five years after their creation, and

(b) used solely for the purpose of checking the lawfulness of the processing of personal data.

(4) Article 3(2) authorities and FIU Ireland shall make all records available to the Data Protection Commission upon its request.]

41.— In this Chapter, a reference to a designated person includes a reference to any person acting, or purporting to act, on behalf of the designated person, including any agent, employee, partner, director or other officer of, or any person engaged under a contract for services with, the designated person.

42.— (1) A designated person who knows, suspects or has reasonable grounds to suspect, on the basis of information obtained in the course of carrying on business as a designated person, that another person has been or is engaged in an offence of money laundering or terrorist financing shall report to F102[FIU Ireland] and the Revenue Commissioners that knowledge or suspicion or those reasonable grounds.

(2) The designated person shall make the report as soon as practicable after acquiring that knowledge or forming that suspicion, or acquiring those reasonable grounds to suspect, that the other person has been or is engaged in money laundering or terrorist financing.

(3) For the purposes of subsections (1) and (2), a designated person is taken not to have reasonable grounds to know or suspect that another person commits an offence on the basis of having received information until the person has scrutinised the information in the course of reasonable business practice (including automated banking transactions).

(4) For the purposes of subsections (1) and (2), a designated person may have reasonable grounds to suspect that another person has been or is engaged in an offence of money laundering or terrorist financing if the designated person is unable to apply any measures specified in section 33(2) or (4), 35(1) or 37(1), (3), (4) or (6), in relation to a customer, as a result of any failure on the part of the customer to provide the designated person with documents or information.

(5) Nothing in subsection (4) limits the circumstances in which a designated person may have reasonable grounds, on the basis of information obtained in the course of carrying out business as a designated person, to suspect that another person has committed an offence of money laundering or terrorist financing.

(6) A designated person who is required to report under this section shall disclose the following information in the report:

(a) the information on which the designated person’s knowledge, suspicion or reasonable grounds are based;

(b) the identity, if the designated person knows it, of the person who the designated person knows, suspects or has reasonable grounds to suspect has been or is engaged in an offence of money laundering or terrorist financing;

(c) the whereabouts, if the designated person knows them, of the property the subject of the money laundering, or the funds the subject of the terrorist financing, as the case may be;

(d) any other relevant information.

F103[(6A) A designated person who is required to make a report under this section shall respond to any request for additional information by FIU Ireland or the Revenue Commissioners as soon as practicable after receiving the request and shall take all reasonable steps to provide any information specified in the request.]

(7) A designated person who is required to make a report under this section shall not proceed with any suspicious transaction or service connected with the report, or with a transaction or service the subject of the report, prior to the sending of the report to F102[FIU Ireland] and the Revenue Commissioners unless—

(a) it is not practicable to delay or stop the transaction or service from proceeding, or

(b) the designated person is of the reasonable opinion that failure to proceed with the transaction or service may result in the other person suspecting that a report may be (or may have been) made or that an investigation may be commenced or in the course of being conducted.

(8) Nothing in subsection (7) authorises a designated person to proceed with a service or transaction if the person has been directed or ordered not to proceed with the service or transaction under section 17 and the direction or order is in force.

(9) Except as provided by section 46, a person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).

(10) A reference in subsection (7) to a suspicious transaction or service is a reference to a transaction or service that there are reasonable grounds for suspecting would, if it were to proceed—

(a) comprise money laundering or terrorist financing, or

(b) assist in money laundering or terrorist financing.

F104[(11) FIU Ireland shall, where practicable, provide timely feedback to a designated person who is required to make a report under this section on the effectiveness of and follow-up to reports made to it under this section.]

43.— F105[…]

44.— (1) Without prejudice to the way in which a report may be made under section 42 F106[…], such a report may be made in accordance with an internal reporting procedure established by an employer for the purpose of facilitating the operation of the section concerned.

(2) It is a defence for a person charged with an offence under section 42 F106[…] to prove that the person was, at the time of the purported offence, an employee who made a report under that section, in accordance with such an internal reporting procedure, to another person.

45.— (1) Information included in a report under this Chapter may be used in an investigation into money laundering or terrorist financing or any other offence.

(2) Nothing in this section limits the information that may be used in an investigation into any offence.

46.— (1) Nothing in this Chapter requires the disclosure of information that is subject to legal privilege.

(2) Nothing in this Chapter requires a relevant professional adviser to disclose information that he or she has received from or obtained in relation to a client in the course of ascertaining the legal position of the client.

(3) Subsection (2) does not apply to information received from or obtained in relation to a client with the intention of furthering a criminal purpose.

47.— The disclosure of information by a person in accordance with this Chapter shall not be treated, for any purpose, as a breach of any restriction imposed by any other enactment or rule of law on disclosure by the person or any other person on whose behalf the disclosure is made.

48.— In this Chapter, “legal adviser” means a barrister or solicitor.

49.— (1) A designated person who knows or suspects, on the basis of information obtained in the course of carrying on business as a designated person, that a report has been, or is required to be, made under Chapter 4 shall not make any disclosure that is likely to prejudice an investigation that may be conducted following the making of the report under that Chapter.

(2) A designated person who knows or suspects, on the basis of information obtained by the person in the course of carrying on business as a designated person, that an investigation is being contemplated or is being carried out into whether an offence of money laundering or terrorist financing has been committed, shall not make any disclosure that is likely to prejudice the investigation.

(3) A person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).

(4) In this section, a reference to a designated person includes a reference to any person acting, or purporting to act, on behalf of the designated person, including any agent, employee, partner, director or other officer of, or any person engaged under a contract for services with, the designated person.

50.— It is a defence in any proceedings against a person (“the defendant”) for an offence under section 49, in relation to a disclosure, for the defendant to prove that—

(a) the disclosure was to a person who, at the time of the disclosure, was a customer of the defendant or of a designated person on whose behalf the defendant made the disclosure,

(b) the defendant, or the designated person on whose behalf the defendant made the disclosure, was directed or ordered under section 17 not to carry out any specified service or transaction in respect of the customer, and

(c) the disclosure was solely to the effect that the defendant, or a designated person on whose behalf the defendant made the disclosure, had been directed by a member of the Garda Síochána, or ordered by a judge of the District Court, under section 17 not to carry out the service or transaction for the period specified in the direction or order.

51.— (1) It is a defence in any proceedings against an individual for an offence under section 49, in relation to a disclosure, for the individual to prove that, at the time of the disclosure—

(a) he or she was an agent, employee, partner, director or other officer of, or was engaged under a contract for services by, an undertaking, and

(b) he or she made the disclosure to an agent, employee, partner, director or other officer of, or a person engaged under a contract for services by, the same undertaking.

F107[(2) It is a defence in any proceedings against a person for an offence under section 49, in relation to a disclosure, for the person to prove that, at the time of the disclosure—

(a) the person was a credit institution or financial institution or a majority-owned subsidiary, or a branch, of a credit institution or financial institution, or made the disclosure on behalf of a credit institution or a financial institution or a majority-owned subsidiary, or a branch, of a credit institution or financial institution, and

(b) the disclosure was to—

(i) a credit institution or financial institution incorporated in a Member State, where both the institution making the disclosure, or on whose behalf the disclosure was made, and the institution to which it was made belonged to the same group, or

(ii) a majority-owned subsidiary or branch situated in a third country of a credit institution or financial institution incorporated in a Member State, where the subsidiary or branch was in compliance with group-wide policies and procedures adopted in accordance with section 54, or, as the case may be, Article 45 of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive.]

(3) It is a defence in any proceedings against a person for an offence under section 49, in relation to a disclosure, for the person to prove that, at the time of the disclosure—

(a) the person was a legal adviser or relevant professional adviser,

(b) both the person making the disclosure and the person to whom it was made carried on business in a Member State F108[or in a country other than a high-risk third country], and

(c) those persons performed their professional activities within different undertakings that shared common ownership, management or control.

52.— (1) This section applies to a disclosure—

(a) by or on behalf of a credit institution to another credit institution,

(b) by or on behalf of a financial institution to another financial institution,

(c) by or on behalf of a legal adviser to another legal adviser, or

(d) by or on behalf of a relevant professional adviser of a particular kind to another relevant professional adviser of the same kind.

(2) It is a defence in any proceedings against a person for an offence under section 49, in relation to a disclosure to which this section applies, for the person to prove that, at the time of the disclosure—

(a) the disclosure related to—

(i) a customer or former customer of the person (or an institution or adviser on whose behalf the person made the disclosure) and the institution or adviser to which or whom it was made, or

(ii) a transaction, or the provision of a service, involving both the person (or an institution or adviser on whose behalf the person made the disclosure) and the institution or adviser to which or whom it was made,

(b) the disclosure was only for the purpose of preventing money laundering or terrorist financing,

(c) the institution or adviser to which or whom the disclosure was made was situated in a Member State or in F109[a country other than a high-risk third country], and

(d) the institution or adviser making the disclosure, or on whose behalf the disclosure was made, and the institution or adviser to which or whom it was made were subject to equivalent duties of professional confidentiality and the protection of personal data F110[…].

(3) A reference in this section to a customer of an adviser includes, in the case of an adviser who is a barrister, a reference to a person who is a client of a solicitor who has sought advice from the barrister for or on behalf of the client.

53.— (1) It is a defence in any proceedings against a person for an offence under section 49, in relation to a disclosure, for the person to prove that—

(a) the disclosure was to the authority that, at the time of the disclosure, was the competent authority responsible for monitoring that person, or for monitoring the person on whose behalf the disclosure was made, under this Part,

(b) the disclosure was for the purpose of the detection, investigation or prosecution of an offence (whether or not in the State), or

(c) the person did not know or suspect, at the time of the disclosure, that the disclosure was likely to have the effect of prejudicing an investigation into whether an offence of money laundering or terrorist financing had been committed.

(2) It is a defence in any proceedings against a person for an offence under section 49, in relation to a disclosure, for the person to prove that—

(a) at the time of the disclosure, the person was a legal adviser or relevant professional adviser,

(b) the disclosure was to the person’s client and solely to the effect that the person would no longer provide the particular service concerned to the client,

(c) the person no longer provided the particular service after so informing the client, and

(d) the person made any report required in relation to the client in accordance with Chapter 4.

F111[54.— (1) A designated person shall adopt internal policies, controls and procedures in relation to the designated person’s business to prevent and detect the commission of money laundering and terrorist financing.

(2) In particular, a designated person shall adopt internal policies, controls and procedures to be followed by any persons involved in carrying out the obligations of the designated person under this Part.

(3) The internal policies, controls and procedures referred to in subsection (1) shall include policies, controls and procedures dealing with—

(a) the identification, assessment, mitigation and management of risk factors relating to money laundering or terrorist financing,

(b) customer due diligence measures,

(c) monitoring transactions and business relationships,

(d) the identification and scrutiny of complex or large transactions, unusual patterns of transactions that have no apparent economic or visible lawful purpose and any other activity that the designated person has reasonable grounds to regard as particularly likely, by its nature to be related to money laundering or terrorist financing,

(e) measures to be taken to prevent the use for money laundering or terrorist financing of transactions or products that could favour or facilitate anonymity,

(f) measures to be taken to prevent the risk of money laundering or terrorist financing which may arise from technological developments including the use of new products and new practices and the manner in which services relating to such developments are delivered,

(g) reporting (including the reporting of suspicious transactions),

(h) record keeping,

(i) measures to be taken to keep documents and information relating to the customers of that designated person up to date,

(j) measures to be taken to keep documents and information relating to risk assessments by that designated person up to date,

(k) internal systems and controls to identify emerging risks and keep business-wide risk assessments up to date, and

(l) monitoring and managing compliance with, and the internal communication of, these policies, controls and procedures.

(4) A designated person shall ensure that policies, controls and procedures adopted in accordance with this section are approved by senior management and shall keep such policies, controls and procedures under review, in particular when there are changes to the business profile or risk profile of the designated person.

(5) In preparing internal policies, controls and procedures under this section, the designated person shall have regard to any guidelines on preparing, implementing and reviewing such policies and procedures that are issued by the competent authority for that designated person.

(6) A designated person shall ensure that persons involved in the conduct of the designated person’s business are—

(a) instructed on the law relating to money laundering and terrorist financing, and

(b) provided with ongoing training on identifying a transaction or other activity that may be related to money laundering or terrorist financing, and on how to proceed once such a transaction or activity is identified.

F112[(6A) A designated person shall have in place appropriate procedures for their employees, or persons in a comparable position, to report a contravention of this Act internally through a specific, independent and anonymous channel, proportionate to the nature and size of the designated person concerned.]

(7) A designated person shall appoint an individual at management level, (to be called a "compliance officer") to monitor and manage compliance with, and the internal communication of, internal policies, controls and procedures adopted by the designated person under this section if directed in writing to do so by the competent authority for that designated person.

(8) A designated person shall appoint a member of senior management with primary responsibility for the implementation and management of anti-money laundering measures in accordance with this Part if directed in writing to do so by the competent authority for that designated person.

(9) A designated person shall undertake an independent, external audit to test the effectiveness of the internal policies, controls and procedures outlined in this section if directed in writing to do so by the competent authority for that designated person.

(10) A reference in this section to persons involved in carrying out the obligations of the designated person under this Part includes a reference to directors and other officers, and employees, of the designated person.

(11) The obligations imposed on a designated person under this section do not apply to a designated person who is an employee of another designated person.

(12) F113[Subsections (6), (6A)], (7), (8), and (9) do not apply to a designated person who is an individual and carries on business alone as a designated person.

(13) A competent authority shall not issue a direction for the purposes of subsection (7), (8) or (9) unless it is satisfied that, having regard to the size and nature of the designated person, it is appropriate to do so.

(14) A competent authority may make a direction to a class of designated persons for whom it is the competent authority for the purposes of subsection (7), (8) or (9).

(15) A designated person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).]

55.— (1) A designated person shall keep records evidencing the procedures applied, and information obtained, by the designated person under Chapter 3 in relation to—

(a) each customer, and

(b) in the case of a designated person to whom section 38 applies, each F114[correspondent relationship].

(2) Without prejudice to the generality of subsection (1), a designated person shall take the original or a copy of all documents used by the designated person for the purposes of Chapter 3, including all documents used to verify the identity of customers F115[(including information from relevant trust services as set out in the Electronic Identification Regulation)] or beneficial owners in accordance with section 33.

(3) A designated person shall keep records evidencing the history of services and transactions carried out in relation to each customer of the designated person.

(4) F114[Subject to subsections (4A), (4B) and (4C), the documents and other records] referred to in subsections (1) to (3) F116[shall be retained by the designated person] for a period of not less than 5 years after—

(a) in the case of a record referred to in subsection (1)(a), the date on which the designated person ceases to provide any service to the customer concerned or the date of the last transaction (if any) with the customer, whichever is the later,

(b) in the case of a record referred to in subsection (1) (b), the date on which the F114[correspondent relationship] concerned ends,

(c) in the case of a record referred to in subsection (3) evidencing the carrying out of a particular transaction by the designated person with, for or on behalf of the customer (other than a record to which paragraph (d) applies), the date on which the particular transaction is completed or discontinued,

(d) in the case of a record referred to in subsection (3) evidencing the carrying out of a particular occasional transaction comprised of a series of transactions, with, for or on behalf of a customer, the date on which the series of transactions is completed or discontinued, or

(e) in the case of a record referred to in subsection (3) evidencing the carrying out of a particular service for or on behalf of the customer (other than a record to which paragraph (c) or (d) applies), the date on which the particular service is completed or discontinued.

F117[(4A) Where a member of the Garda Síochána not below the rank of Sergeant having carried out a thorough assessment of the necessity and proportionality of further retention is satisfied—

(a) that certain documents or records, or documents or records relating to a certain business relationship or occasional transaction, are required for the purposes of an investigation related to money laundering or terrorist financing, or

(b) notwithstanding the fact that a decision to institute proceedings against a person may not have been taken, that the documents or records are likely to be required for the prosecution of an offence of money laundering or terrorist financing,

the member may give a direction in writing to a designated person to retain the documents and other records for a period, up to a maximum of 5 years, additional to the period referred to in subsection (4).

(4B) Where a direction has been given to a designated person in accordance with subsection (4A) and neither paragraph (a) nor (b) of that subsection continue to apply a member of the Garda Síochána shall, as soon as practicable, notify the designated person to whom the direction was given of that fact and the direction shall expire on the date of that notification.

(4C) A designated person who is given a direction under subsection (4A) shall retain the documents or records specified in the direction until the earlier of—

(a) the expiration of the additional period specified in the direction, and

(b) the expiration of the direction.]

(5) Subsection (4)(a) extends to any record that was required to be retained under section 32(9)(a) of the Act of 1994 immediately before the repeal of that provision by this Act.

(6) Subsection (4)(c) to (e) extends to any record that was required to be retained under section 32(9)(b) of the Criminal Justice Act 1994 immediately before the repeal of that provision by this Act and for that purpose—

(a) a reference in subsection (4)(c) to (e) to a record referred to in subsection (3) includes a reference to such a record, and

(b) a reference in subsection (4)(d) to an occasional transaction comprised of a series of transactions includes a reference to a series of transactions referred to in section 32(3)(b) of the Criminal Justice Act 1994.

(7) A designated person may keep the records referred to in subsections (1) to (6) wholly or partly in an electronic, mechanical or other non-written form only if they are capable of being reproduced in a written form.

F118[(7A) The records required to be kept by a designated person under this section may be kept outside the State provided that the designated person ensures that those records are produced in the State to—

(a) a member of the Garda Síochána,

(b) an authorised officer appointed under section 72,

(c) a relevant authorised officer within the meaning of section 103, or

(d) a person to whom the designated person is required to produce such records in relation to his or her business, trade or profession,

as soon as practicable after the records concerned are requested, or where the obligation to produce the records arises under an order of a court made under section 63 of the Criminal Justice Act 1994, within the period which applies to such production under the court order concerned.]

F117[(7B) Upon the expiry of the retention periods referred to in this section a designated person shall ensure that any personal data contained in any document or other record retained solely for the purposes of this section is deleted.]

(8) The requirements imposed by this section are in addition to, and not in substitution for, any other requirements imposed by any other enactment or rule of law with respect to the keeping and retention of records by a designated person.

(9) The obligations that are imposed on a designated person under this section continue to apply to a person who has been a designated person, but has ceased to carry on business as a designated person.

(10) A requirement for a designated person that is a body corporate to retain any record under this section extends to any body corporate that is a successor to, or a continuation of, the body corporate.

(11) The Minister may make regulations prescribing requirements relating to the retention of records referred to in this section of a body corporate that is wound up or a partnership that is dissolved.

(12) A designated person who fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).

56.—(1) A F119[…] designated person shall have systems in place to enable it to respond fully and promptly to enquiries from the Garda Síochána—

(a) as to whether or not it has, or has had, a business relationship, within the previous F120[5 years], with a person specified by the Garda Síochána, and

(b) the nature of any such relationship with that person.

(2) F120[A designated person who] fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).

57.— (1) A designated person that is part of a group shall implement group-wide policies and procedures, including data protection policies and policies and procedures for sharing information within the group, for the purposes of carrying out customer due diligence and preventing and detecting the commission of money laundering and terrorist financing.

(2) A designated person incorporated in the State that operates a branch, majority-owned subsidiary or establishment in a place other than the State shall ensure that the branch, majority-owned subsidiary or establishment adopts and applies group-wide policies and procedures referred to in subsection (1).

(3) Where a place referred to in subsection (2), other than a Member State, is a place that does not permit the implementation of the policies and procedures required under subsection (1) the designated person shall—

(a) ensure that each of its branches and majority-owned subsidiaries in that place applies additional measures to effectively handle the risk of money laundering or terrorist financing, and

(b) notify the competent authority for that designated person of the additional measures applied under paragraph (a).

(4) A designated person incorporated in the State that operates a branch, majority-owned subsidiary or establishment in another Member State shall ensure that the branch, majority-owned subsidiary or establishment complies with the requirements of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive as they apply in that Member State.

(5) A designated person incorporated in the State that has a branch or majority-owned subsidiary located in a place, other than a Member State, in which the minimum requirements relating to the prevention and detection of money laundering and terrorist financing are less strict than those of the State shall ensure that the branch or majority-owned subsidiary implement the requirements of the State, including requirements relating to data protection, to the extent that the third country’s law so allows.

(6) Subject to section 49, a designated person that is part of a group that makes a report under section 42 shall share that report within the group for the purposes of preventing and detecting the commission of money laundering and terrorist financing unless otherwise instructed by FIU Ireland.

(7) A designated person that fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).]

57A.— (1) Where a competent authority receives a notification under section 57(3)(b) and is not satisfied that the additional measures applied in accordance with that subsection are sufficient for the purposes of carrying out customer due diligence and preventing and detecting the commission of money laundering and terrorist financing it shall exercise additional supervisory actions, where necessary requesting a group to close down its operations in the third country and may, by notice in writing, direct the designated person to take such additional actions as the competent authority considers necessary to mitigate the risk of money laundering or terrorist financing.

(2) A notice under subsection (1)—

(a) may direct the group—

(i) not to establish a business relationship,

(ii) to terminate a business relationship, or

(iii) not to undertake a transaction,

and

(b) shall specify the matters which, in the opinion of the competent authority, give rise to the risk of money laundering or terrorist financing and in respect of which the additional measures taken are insufficient.

(3) A notice under subsection (1) shall take effect—

(a) where the notice so declares, immediately the notice is received by the person on whom it is served,

(b) in any other case—

(i) where no appeal is taken against the notice, on the expiration of the period during which such an appeal may be taken or the day specified in the notice as the day on which it is to come into effect, whichever is the later, or

(ii) in case such an appeal is taken, on the day next following the day on which the notice is confirmed on appeal or the appeal is withdrawn or the day specified in the notice as that on which it is to come into effect, whichever is the later.

(4) A designated person that is aggrieved by a notice may, within the period of 30 days beginning on the day on which the notice is served, appeal against the notice to the High Court and in determining the appeal the court may—

(a) if the court is satisfied that in the circumstances of the case it is reasonable to do so, confirm the notice, with or without modification, or

(b) cancel the notice.

(5) The bringing of an appeal against a notice which is to take effect in accordance with subsection (3)(a) shall not have the effect of suspending the operation of the notice, but the appellant may apply to the court to have the operation of the notice suspended until the appeal is disposed of and, on such application, the court may, if it thinks proper to do so, direct that the operation of the notice be suspended until the appeal is disposed of.

(6) Where on the hearing of an appeal under this section a notice is confirmed the High Court may, on the application of the appellant, suspend the operation of the notice for such period as in the circumstances of the case the High Court considers appropriate.

(7) A person who appeals under subsection (4) against a notice or who applies for a direction suspending the application of the notice under subsection (6) shall at the same time notify the competent authority concerned of the appeal or the application and the grounds for the appeal or the application and the competent authority shall be entitled to appear, be heard and adduce evidence on the hearing of the appeal or the application.

(8) A designated person that fails to comply with a direction made by the competent authority for that designated person under subsection (1) commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).

(9) A competent authority may, by notice in writing to the designated person concerned, vary or revoke a notice under subsection (1).]

58.— (1) A credit institution or financial institution shall not set up an anonymous account for, or provide an F123[anonymous passbook or safe-deposit box] to, any customer.

(2) A credit institution or financial institution shall not keep any anonymous account, or F123[anonymous passbook or safe-deposit box], that was in existence immediately before the commencement of this section for any customer.

(3) A credit institution or financial institution that fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).

F124[59.— (1) A credit institution or financial institution shall not enter into a correspondent relationship with a shell bank.

(2) A credit institution or financial institution that has entered into a correspondent relationship with a shell bank before the commencement of this section shall not continue that relationship.

(3) A credit institution or financial institution shall not engage in or continue a correspondent relationship with a bank that the institution knows permits its accounts to be used by a shell bank.

(4) A credit institution or financial institution shall apply appropriate measures to ensure that it does not enter into or continue a correspondent relationship that permits its accounts to be used by a shell bank.

(5) A credit institution or financial institution that fails to comply with this section commits an offence and is liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both), or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 5 years (or both).

(6) In this section, "shell bank" means a credit institution or financial institution (or a body corporate that is engaged in activities equivalent to those of a credit institution or financial institution) that—

(a) does not have a physical presence, involving meaningful decision-making and management, in the jurisdiction in which it is incorporated,

(b) is not authorised to operate, and is not subject to supervision, as a credit institution, or as a financial institution, (or equivalent) in the jurisdiction in which it is incorporated, and

(c) is not affiliated with another body corporate that—

(i) has a physical presence, involving meaningful decision-making and management, in the jurisdiction in which it is incorporated, and

(ii) is authorised to operate, and is subject to supervision, as a credit institution, a financial institution or an insurance undertaking, in the jurisdiction in which it is incorporated.]

60.— (1) Subject to section 61, a reference in this Part to the competent authority for a designated person is a reference to the competent authority prescribed for the class of designated persons to which the designated person belongs.

(2) If no such competent authority is prescribed, a reference in this Part to the competent authority is a reference to the following:

(a) in the case of a designated person that is a credit institution or a financial institution, the F125[Central Bank of Ireland];

(b) in the case of a designated person who is an auditor, external accountant, tax adviser or trust or company service provider—

(i) if the person is a member of a designated accountancy body, the designated accountancy body, or

(ii) if the person is not a member of a designated accountancy body and is a body corporate, or a body of unincorporated persons, carrying out its functions under this Part F126[through officers and members] of it who are members of a designated accountancy body, the designated accountancy body;

(c) in the case of a designated person who is a solicitor, the Law Society of Ireland;

F127[(d) in the case of a designated person who is a barrister, the Legal Services Regulatory Authority;]

F128[(da) F129[…]]

F130[(db) in the case of a designated person that is a property services provider, the Property Services Regulatory Authority;]

(e) in the case of any designated person other than a designated person referred to in paragraph (a), (b), (c) F127[, (d) or (db)], the Minister.

(3) The Minister may prescribe a competent authority for a class of designated persons, for the purpose of subsection (1), only if the Minister is satisfied that the competent authority is more appropriate than the competent authority specified in subsection (2) for the class of designated persons, having regard to the nature of the business activities engaged in by that class.

61.— (1) Where there is more than one competent authority for a designated person under section 60, those competent authorities may agree that one of them will act as the competent authority for that person, and references in this Part to a competent authority are to be construed accordingly.

(2) An agreement under this section, in relation to a designated person, takes effect when the competent authority who has agreed to act as the competent authority for the designated person gives notice, in writing, to that person.

(3) An agreement under this section, in relation to a designated person, ceases to have effect when—

(a) any of the parties to the agreement gives notice, in writing, to the other parties of the termination of the agreement,

(b) the agreement expires, or

(c) as a result of the operation of section 60(1), the competent authority who has agreed to act as the competent authority is no longer a competent authority of the person under section 60,

whichever is the earliest.

62.— (1) In this Part, a reference to a State competent authority is a reference to one of the following competent authorities:

(a) the F131[Central Bank of Ireland];

(b) the Minister;

(c) such other competent authority as is prescribed.

(2) The Minister may prescribe a competent authority as a State competent authority for the purposes of subsection (1) (c) only if—

(a) the Minister is satisfied that the competent authority is appropriate, having regard to the functions of State competent authorities under this Part, and

(b) the competent authority is a Minister of the Government or an officer of a particular class or description of a Department of State or is a body (not being a company) by or under an enactment.

63.— (1) A competent authority shall effectively monitor the designated persons for whom it is a competent authority and take measures that are reasonably necessary for the purpose of securing compliance by those designated persons with the requirements specified in this Part.

(2) The measures that are reasonably necessary include reporting to the Garda Síochána and Revenue Commissioners any knowledge or suspicion that the competent authority has that a designated person has been or is engaged in money laundering or terrorist financing.

(3) In determining, in any particular case, whether a designated person has complied with any of the requirements specified in this Part, a competent authority shall consider whether the person is able to demonstrate to the competent authority that the requirements have been met.

(4) A competent authority that, in the course of monitoring a designated person under this section, acquires any knowledge or forms any suspicion that another person has been or is engaged in money laundering or terrorist financing shall report that knowledge or suspicion to the Garda Síochána and Revenue Commissioners.

63A.— (1) Competent authorities shall take the necessary measures to prevent persons convicted of a relevant offence from performing a management function in or being the beneficial owners of the designated persons referred to in paragraphs (c), (d) and (f) of section 25(1).

(2) Any person performing a management function in or being the beneficial owner of the designated persons referred to in subsection (1) and who is convicted of a relevant offence must inform the relevant competent authority within 30 days of the day on which that person was convicted of the relevant offence.

(3) Any designated person for which or in respect of which a person who is convicted of a relevant offence, performs a management function or is a beneficial owner, shall inform its competent authority of the conviction within 30 days of the date on which the designated person became aware of the conviction.

(4) In this section “a relevant offence” means—

(a) an offence under this Act,

(b) an offence specified in Schedule 1 to the Criminal Justice Act 2011, or

(c) an offence under the law of a place (other than the State), consisting of an act or omission that, if done or omitted to be done in the State, would, under the law of the State, constitute an offence under subsections (a) or (b).

(5) A person who fails to comply with subsection (2) or (3) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable—

(a) on summary conviction, to a class A fine or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or both, or

(b) on conviction on indictment, to a fine not exceeding €100,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or both.]

63B.— (1) This section applies to designated persons—

(a) which operate establishments in the State and which have their head offices in another Member State, or

(b) which operate establishments in another Member State and which have their head offices in the State.

(2) A competent authority for designated persons to which this section applies shall take the necessary steps—

(a) to co-operate with Member State competent authorities in relation to the development and implementation of policies to counter money laundering and terrorist financing,

(b) to co-ordinate activities to counter money laundering and terrorist financing with Member State competent authorities, and

(c) to co-operate with Member State competent authorities to ensure the effective supervision of designated persons to which this section applies.

F135[(2A) Co-operation with Member State competent authorities under this section by a competent authority may include the sharing of information which the competent authority is not prevented from disclosing by the law of the State and the provision of assistance shall not be refused on the basis that:

(a) the request for the sharing of information or the provision of assistance is also considered to involve tax matters;

(b) the law of the State requires the competent authority to maintain secrecy or confidentiality except in those cases where the relevant information that is sought is protected by legal privilege;

(c) there is an inquiry, investigation or proceeding underway in the State, unless the sharing of such information or the provision of assistance would impede the inquiry, investigation or proceeding; or

(d) the nature or status of the requesting competent authority is different from that of the competent authority of whom the request is made.]

(3) In this section “Member State competent authority”, in relation to a Member State (other than the State), means the authority designated by that Member State to be the competent authority in that Member State for the purposes of the Fourth Money Laundering Directive.]

63C.— Each competent authority shall—

(a) adopt a risk-based approach to the exercise of its supervisory functions,

(b) ensure that its employees and officers have access both at its offices and elsewhere to relevant information on the domestic and international risks of money laundering and terrorist financing which affect its own sector,

(c) base the frequency and intensity of on-site and off-site supervision on the risk profile of designated persons, and on the risks of money laundering and terrorist financing in the State,

(d) review, both periodically and when there are major events or developments in their management and operations, their assessment of the money laundering and terrorist financing risk profile of designated persons, including the risks of non-compliance with the provisions of this Act, and

(e) take into account the degree of discretion allowed to the designated person, and appropriately review the risk assessments underlying this discretion, and the adequacy and implementation of its internal policies, controls and procedures.]

63D.— (1) A competent authority, other than a State competent authority, shall make arrangements to ensure that—

(a) its supervisory functions are exercised independently of any of its other functions which do not relate to disciplinary matters,

(b) sensitive information relating to its supervisory functions is appropriately handled within the competent authority,

(c) it employs only persons with appropriate qualifications, integrity and professional skills to carry out the supervisory functions and maintain high professional standards, F138[including standards of confidentiality and data protection and standards addressing conflicts of interest], and

(d) a contravention of a requirement imposed by or under this Act by a designated person it is responsible for supervising renders that person liable to effective, proportionate and dissuasive disciplinary measures under its rules.

(2) A competent authority, other than a State competent authority, shall—

(a) provide adequate resources to carry out the supervisory functions, and

(b) appoint a person to monitor and manage the competent authority’s compliance with its duties under this Act.

(3) The person appointed under subsection (2)(b) shall be responsible—

(a) for liaison with—

(i) another competent authority, and

(ii) any Member State competent authority (within the meaning of section 63B),

(b) for ensuring that the competent authority responds fully and as soon as possible to any request from an authority referred to in subsection (a)(i) or (ii) for information about any person it supervises.]

63E.— (1) Each competent authority shall establish effective and reliable mechanisms to encourage the reporting of potential and actual breaches of this Act.

(2) Each competent authority shall provide one or more secure communication channels for persons reporting the matters referred to in subsection (1).

(3) Each competent authority shall ensure that the channels of communication referred to in subsection (2) can also be used by persons to report any threats or retaliatory or hostile actions they are subjected to for reporting suspected breaches of this Act.]

64.— Nothing in this Part limits any functions that a competent authority (including a State competent authority) has under any other enactment or rule of law.

65.—F140[(1)] A competent authority shall include, in each annual report published by the authority, an account of the activities that it has carried out in performing its functions under this Act during the year to which the annual report relates.

F141[(2) Where a competent authority is not a State competent authority, each annual report published by the authority shall include information regarding the measures taken by the authority to monitor compliance by designated persons with the provisions of this Part.]

66.— (1) In this section, a reference to relevant information, in relation to a person, that is held by a body is a reference to any of the following information that is held by the body:

(a) the name, address or other contact details of the person;

(b) any other prescribed information relating to the person.

(2) A State competent authority may, by notice in writing, request any public body, or any body that represents, regulates or licenses, registers or otherwise authorises persons carrying on any trade, profession, business or employment, to provide the authority with any relevant information, in relation to—

(a) any designated persons for whom the authority is a competent authority, or

(b) any persons whom the body reasonably considers may be such designated persons.

(3) A State competent authority may make a request under this section only in relation to information that is reasonably required by the authority to assist the authority in carrying out its functions under this Part.

(4) Notwithstanding any other enactment or rule of law, a body that receives a request under this section shall disclose the relevant information concerned.

(5) The Minister may prescribe information, for the purposes of subsection (1)(b), that a State competent authority may request under this section only if the Minister is satisfied that the information is appropriate, having regard to the functions of the State competent authority under this Part.

67.— (1) A State competent authority may, by notice in writing, direct a designated person for whom the authority is a competent authority to provide such information or documents (or both) relating to the designated person specified in the notice.

(2) A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a direction under this section commits an offence and is liable, on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both).

(3) In giving a direction under this section, a State competent authority shall specify the manner in which any document or information is required to be furnished and a reasonable time by which the document or information is required to be furnished.

(4) A person is required to furnish documents in accordance with this section only if the documents are in the person’s possession or within the person’s power to obtain lawfully.

(5) If a person knows the whereabouts of documents to which the direction applies, the person shall furnish to the State competent authority who gave the direction a statement, verified by a statutory declaration, identifying the whereabouts of the documents. The person shall furnish the statement no later than the time by which the direction specifies that the documents are required to be furnished.

(6) A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with subsection (5) commits an offence and is liable, on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both).

(7) If any document required to be furnished under this section is in electronic, mechanical or other form, the document shall be furnished in written form, unless the direction specifies otherwise.

(8) A State competent authority may take copies of, or extracts from, any document furnished to the authority under this section.

68.— (1) A State competent authority may, by notice in writing, direct a designated person for whom the authority is a competent authority to furnish to the authority an explanation of any documents relating to the designated person that—

(a) the person has furnished to the authority in complying with a direction under section 67, or

(b) an authorised officer has lawfully removed from premises under section 77 (including as applied by section 78).

(2) In giving a direction under this section, a State competent authority shall specify the manner in which any explanation of a document is required to be furnished and a reasonable time by which the explanation is required to be furnished.

(3) A person who, without reasonable excuse, fails to comply with a direction under this section commits an offence and is liable, on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both).

69.— A State competent authority may give a direction under section 67 or 68 only in relation to information or documents reasonably required by the authority to assist the authority to perform its functions under this Part.

70.— Nothing in section 67 or 68 requires a person to comply with a direction under the section concerned to furnish any information if to do so might tend to incriminate the person.

71.— (1) A State competent authority may, by notice in writing, direct a designated person or a class of designated persons in respect of whom the authority is the competent authority to—

(a) discontinue, or refrain from engaging in, specified conduct that in the opinion of the authority concerned constitutes, or, if engaged in, would constitute, a breach of any specified provision of this Part, or

(b) take specific actions or to establish specific processes or procedures that in the opinion of the authority are reasonably necessary for the purposes of complying with any specified provision of this Part.

(2) The State competent authority shall specify in any such direction a reasonable period of time within which the person to whom it is given is required to comply with the direction.

(3) If a designated person to whom a direction has been issued under subsection (1) fails to comply with the direction and is subsequently found guilty of an offence—

(a) which consists of the conduct specified in the direction given under subsection (1)(a), or

(b) which would not have been committed if the direction under subsection (1)(b) had been complied with,

the court may take the failure to comply with the direction into account as an aggravating factor in determining any sentence to be imposed on the person for the offence.]

72.— (1) A State competent authority may appoint employees of the authority or other persons who, in the opinion of the authority, are suitably qualified or experienced, to be authorised officers for the purpose of this Chapter.

(2) A State competent authority may revoke any appointment made by the authority under subsection (1).

(3) An appointment or revocation under this section shall be in writing.

(4) A person’s appointment by a State competent authority as an authorised officer ceases—

(a) on the revocation by the authority of the appointment,

(b) in a case where the appointment is for a specified period, on the expiration of the period,

(c) on the person’s resignation from the appointment, or

(d) in a case where the person is an employee of the authority—

(i) on the resignation of the person as an employee of the authority, or

(ii) on the termination of the person’s employment with the authority for any other reason.

73.— (1) Every authorised officer appointed by a State competent authority shall be furnished with a warrant of appointment as an authorised officer by the State competent authority.

(2) In the course of performing the functions of an authorised officer under this Chapter, the officer shall, if requested to do so by any person affected, produce the officer’s warrant of appointment for inspection.

74.— An authorised officer may exercise powers as an authorised officer under this Chapter only for the purpose of assisting the State competent authority that appointed the authorised officer in the performance of the authority’s functions under this Part.

75.— (1) An authorised officer may enter any premises at which the authorised officer reasonably believes that the business of a designated person has been or is carried on.

(2) An authorised officer may enter any premises at which the authorised officer reasonably believes records or other documents relating to the business of a designated person are located.

(3) An authorised officer may enter premises under subsection (1) or (2)—

(a) in a case where the authorised officer reasonably believes that the business of a designated person is carried on at the premises (as referred to in subsection (1)), at any time during which the authorised officer reasonably believes that the business is being carried on there, or

(b) in any other case, at any reasonable time.

76.— Nothing in this Chapter shall be construed as empowering an authorised officer to enter any dwelling without the permission of the occupier or the authority of a warrant under section 78.

77.— (1) An authorised officer may, at any premises lawfully entered by the officer, do any of the following:

(a) inspect the premises;

(b) request any person on the premises who apparently has control of, or access to, records or other documents that relate to the business of a designated person (being a designated person whose competent authority is the State competent authority who appointed the authorised officer)—

(i) to produce the documents for inspection, and

(ii) if any of those documents are in an electronic, mechanical or other form, to reproduce the document in a written form;

(c) inspect documents produced or reproduced in accordance with such a request or found in the course of inspecting the premises;

(d) take copies of those documents or of any part of them (including, in the case of a document in an electronic, mechanical or other form, a copy of the document in a written form);

(e) request any person at the premises who appears to the authorised person to have information relating to the documents, or to the business of the designated person, to answer questions with respect to the documents or that business;

(f) remove and retain the documents (including in the case of a document in an electronic, mechanical or other form, a copy of the information in a written form) for the period reasonably required for further examination;

(g) request a person who has charge of, operates or is concerned in the operation of data equipment, including any person who has operated that equipment, to give the officer all reasonable assistance in relation to the operation of the equipment or access to the data stored within it;

(h) secure, for later inspection, the premises or part of the premises at which the authorised officer reasonably believes records or other documents relating to the business of the designated person are located.

(2) A person to whom a request is made in accordance with subsection (1) shall—

(a) comply with the request so far as it is possible to do so, and

(b) give such other assistance and information to the authorised officer with respect to the business of the designated person concerned as is reasonable in the circumstances.

(3) A reference in this section to data equipment includes a reference to any associated apparatus.

(4) A reference in this section to a person who operates or has operated data equipment includes a reference to a person on whose behalf data equipment is operated or has been operated.

78.— (1) A judge of the District Court may issue a warrant under this section if satisfied, by information on oath of an authorised officer, that there are reasonable grounds for believing that—

(a) documents relating to the business of a designated person that are required for the purpose of assisting the State competent authority that appointed the authorised officer under this Chapter in the performance of the authority’s functions under this Part are contained on premises, and

(b) the premises comprise a dwelling or an authorised officer has been obstructed or otherwise prevented from entering the premises under section 75.

(2) A warrant under this section authorises an authorised officer, at any time or times within one month of the issue of the warrant—

(a) to enter the premises specified in the warrant, and

(b) to exercise the powers conferred on authorised officers by this Chapter or any of those powers that are specified in the warrant.

(3) Entry to premises the subject of a warrant may be effected with the use of reasonable force.

79.— An authorised officer may be accompanied, and assisted in the exercise of the officer’s powers (including under a warrant issued under section 78), by such other authorised officers, members of the Garda Síochána or other persons as the authorised officer reasonably considers appropriate.

80.— (1) A person commits an offence if the person, without reasonable excuse—

(a) obstructs or interferes with an authorised officer in the exercise of the officer’s powers under this Chapter, or

(b) fails to comply with a requirement, or request made by an authorised officer, under section 77 (including as applied by section 78).

(2) A person who commits an offence under this section is liable, on summary conviction, to a fine not exceeding €5,000 or imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months (or both).

(3) A reference in this section to an authorised officer includes a member of the Garda Síochána or other person who is accompanying and assisting the officer in accordance with section 79.

81.— Nothing in this Chapter requires a person to answer questions if to do so might tend to incriminate the person.

82.— Nothing in this Chapter requires the production of any document or information subject to legal privilege.

83.— (1) The disclosure or production of any information or document by a person in accordance with this Chapter shall not be treated as a breach of any restriction under any enactment or rule of law on disclosure or production by the person or any other person on whose behalf the information or document is disclosed or produced.

(2) The production referred to in subsection (1) of any item forming part of the documents relating to the business of a designated person shall not prejudice any lien that the designated person or any other person claims over that item.